Method of profiling gene expression in a subject having an infectious disease
First Claim
Patent Images
1. A method of profiling gene expression in a human subject having an infectious disease, the method comprising:
- determining, for each gene of a set of genes, a level of RNA encoded by the gene in a blood sample of the subject, wherein the set comprises the genes identified as;
100 kDa coactivator;
10 kD protein (BC10);
14-3-3 epsilon;
14-3-3 protein;
15 kDa selenoprotein (SEP15);
1-phosphatidylinositol-4-phosphate 5-kinase isoform C;
23 kD highly basic protein;
2-5A-dependent RNase;
2′
-5′
oligoadenylate synthetase 2 (OAS2);
26S proteasome subunit 11;
36 kDa phosphothyrosine protein;
3-phosphoglycerate dehydrogenase (PGAD);
3-prime-phosphoadenosine 5-prime-phosphosulfate synthase 1 (PAPSS1);
5-aminoimidazole-4-carboxamide ribonucleotide transformylase;
5′
-nucleotidase;
6-phosphofructo-2-kinase/fructose-2,6-biphosphatase 4 (PFKFB4);
6-phosphofructo-2-kinase/fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase (PF2K);
71 kd heat shock cognate protein hsc70;
76 kDa membrane protein (P76);
8-oxoguanine DNA glycosylase (OGG1);
a disintegrin and metalloprotease domain 10 (ADAM10);
a disintegrin and metalloprotease domain 8 (ADAM8);
A kinase anchor protein 95 (AKAP95);
A kinase anchor protein, 149 kD (AKAP149);
Absent in melanoma 1 (AIM1);
accessory proteins BAP31/BAP29 (DXS1357E);
acetyl-Coenzyme A acyltransferase (peroxisomal 3-oxoacyl-Coenzyme A thiolase) (ACAA);
acetyl-Coenzyme A transporter (ACATN);
acidic 82 kDa protein;
acidic protein rich in leucines (SSP29);
Aconitase 2, mitochondrial (ACO2);
actin binding protein MAYVEN;
actin, beta (ACTB);
actin, gamma 1 (ACTG1);
actin-binding LIM protein (ABLIM);
Actinin, alpha 1 (ACTN1);
actinin, alpha 4 (ACTN4);
activated p21cdc42Hs kinase (ACK);
activated RNA polymerase II transcription cofactor 4 (PC4);
activating transcription factor 1 (ATF1);
activating transcription factor 2 (ATF2);
activating transcription factor 4 (tax-responsive enhancer element B67) (ATF4);
active BCR-related gene (ABR);
acyl-CoA oxidase (AOX);
acyl-Coenzyme A dehydrogenase, C-4 to C-12 straight chain (ACADM);
acyl-Coenzyme A dehydrogenase, very long chain (ACADVL);
acyloxyacyl hydrolase (neutrophil) (AOAH);
adaptin, delta (ADTD);
adaptin, gamma (ADTG);
adaptor complex sigma3B (AP3S3);
adaptor protein p150;
adducin 1 (alpha) (ADD1);
adducin 1 (alpha) (add1);
adducin 3 (gamma) (ADD3);
adenine nucleotide translocator 2 (fibroblast) (ANT2);
adenine nucleotide translocator 3 (liver) (ANT3);
adenomatous polyposis-coli protein (APC);
adenosine deaminase, RNA-specific (ADAR);
adenylate cyclase 3 (ADCY3);
adenylate cyclase 7 (ADCY7);
adenylate kinase 2 (AK2);
adenylyl cyclase-associated protein (CAP);
adipose differentiation-related protein;
adipophilin (ADFP);
ADP-ribosylation factor 1 (ARF1);
ADP-ribosylation factor 3 (ARF3);
ADP-ribosylation factor 4 (ARF4);
ADP-ribosylation factor 5 (ARF5);
ADP-ribosylation factor domain protein 1, 64 kD (ARFD1);
ADP-ribosyltransferase (NAD+;
poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase) (ADPRT);
adrenergic, beta, receptor kinase 1 (ADRBK1);
adrenoleukodystrophy-like 1 (ALDL1);
AF-17;
A-gamma-globin;
A-gamma-globin (chromosome 11 allele);
agammaglobulinaemia tyrosine kinase (ATK);
AHNAK nucleoprotein (desmoyokin) (AHNAK);
alanyl (membrane) aminopeptidase (aminopeptidase N, aminopeptidase M, microsomal aminopeptidase, CD13, p150) (ANPEP);
alcohol dehydrogenase 5 (class III), chi polypeptide (ADH5);
aldehyde dehydrogenase 1, soluble (ALDH1);
aldehyde dehydrogenase 10 (fatty aldehyde dehydrogenase) (ALDH10);
aldehyde reductase 1 (low Km aldose reductase) (ALDR1);
aldo-keto reductase family 1, member A1 (aldehyde reductase) (AKR1A1);
aldo-keto reductase family 1, member C3 (3-alpha hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase, type II) (AKR1C3);
aldo-keto reductase family 7, member A2 (aflatoxin aldehyde reductase) (AKR7A2);
aldolase A, fructose-bisphosphate (ALDOA);
aldolase C, fructose-bisphosphate (ALDOC);
alkaline phosphatase, liver/bone/kidney (ALPL);
alpha mannosidase II isozyme;
alpha thalassemia/mental retardation syndrome X-linked (ATRX);
alpha-2-macroglobulin;
alpha-2-globin;
alpha-2-macroglobulin receptor/lipoprotein receptor protein (A2MR/LRP);
alpha-polypeptide of N-acetyl-alpha-glucosaminidase (HEXA);
alpha-spectrin;
alpha-subunit of Gi2 a (GTP-binding signal transduction protein);
aminin receptor 1 (67 kD);
Ribosomal protein SA (LAMR1);
aminolevulinate, delta-, dehydratase (ALAD);
amino-terminal enhancer of split (AES);
amino-terminal enhancer of split (AES);
AMP deaminase isoform L (AMPD2);
amphiphysin (Stiff-Mann syndrome with breast cancer 128 kD autoantigen) (AMPH);
amphiphysin II;
amphiphysin-like (AMPHL);
AMY-1;
amyloid beta (A4) precursor protein-binding, family B, member 1 (Fe65) (APBB1);
amyloid beta (A4) precursor-like protein 2 (APLP2);
amyloid precursor protein (APP);
annexin I (lipocortin I) (ANX1);
annexin II;
annexin II (lipocortin II;
calpactin I, heavy polypeptide) (ANX2);
annexin IV (placental anticoagulant protein II) (ANX4);
annexin V (endonexin II) (ANX5);
annexin V (endonexin II) (ANXV);
annexin VI (p68) (ANX6);
annexin VII (synexin) (ANX7);
antigen identified by monoclonal antibodies 12E7, F21 and O13 (MIC2);
antigen identified by monoclonal antibodies 4F2, TRA1.10, TROP4, and T43 (MDU1);
anti-oxidant protein 2 (non-selenium glutathione peroxidase, acidic calcium-independent phospholipase A2) (KIAA0106);
APEX nuclease (multifunctional DNA repair enzyme) (APEX);
apoptosis inhibitor 1 (API1);
apoptosis inhibitor 4 (survivin) (API4);
apoptosis inhibitor 5 (API5);
apoptosis specific protein (ASP);
apoptotic protease activating factor (APAF1);
aquaporin 3 (AQP3);
aquaporin 9 (AQP9);
arachidonate 12-lipoxygenase (ALOX12);
arachidonate 5-lipoxygenase-activating protein (ALOX5AP);
ariadne homolog (ARI);
ariadne-2 (D. melanogaster) homolog (all-trans retinoic acid inducible RING finger) (ARI2);
ARP1 (actin-related protein 1, yeast) homolog A (centractin alpha) (ACTR1A);
ARP2 (actin-related protein 2, yeast) homolog (ACTR2);
ARP2/3 protein complex subunit 34 (ARC34);
Arp2/3 protein complex subunit p41 (ARC41);
Arp2/3 protein complex subunit p16 (ARC16);
Arp2/3 protein complex subunit p20 (ARC20);
Arp2/3 protein complex subunit p21 (ARC21);
ARP3 (actin-related protein 3, yeast) homolog (ACTR3);
arrestin, beta 2 (ARRB2);
arsA (bacterial) arsenite transporter, ATP-binding, homolog 1 (ASNA1);
aryl hydrocarbon receptor nuclear translocator-like (ARNTL);
aryl hydrocarbon receptor-interacting protein (AIP);
arylsulfatase A (ARSA);
asialoglycoprotein receptor 2 (ASGR2);
asparaginyl-tRNA synthetase (NARS);
aspartyl-tRNA synthetase (DARS);
ataxia telangiectasia mutated (includes complementation groups A, C and D) (ATM);
ataxin-2-like protein A2LP (A2LG);
ATF6;
ATP synthase (F1-ATPase) alpha subunit, mitochondrial;
ATP synthase beta subunit gene;
ATP synthase, H+ transporting, mitochondrial F0 complex, subunit b, isoform 1 (ATP5F1);
ATP synthase, H+ transporting, mitochondrial F0 complex, subunit c (subunit
9), isoform 1 (ATP5G1);
ATP synthase, H+ transporting, mitochondrial F1 complex, alpha subunit, isoform 1, cardiac muscle (ATP5A1);
ATP synthase, H+ transporting, mitochondrial F1 complex, beta polypeptide (ATP5B);
ATP synthase, H+ transporting, mitochondrial F1 complex, gamma polypeptide 1 (ATP5C1);
ATP synthase, H+ transporting, mitochondrial F1F0, subunit g (ATP5JG);
ATP/GTP-binding protein (HEAB);
ATPase, Ca++ transporting, ubiquitous (ATP2A3);
ATPase, H+ transporting, lysosomal (vacuolar proton pump) 21 kD (ATP6F);
ATPase, H+ transporting, lysosomal (vacuolar proton pump) 31 kD (ATP6E);
ATPase, H+ transporting, lysosomal (vacuolar proton pump) 42 kD;
Vacuolar proton-ATPase, subunit C;
V-ATPase, subunit C (ATP6D);
ATPase, H+ transporting, lysosomal (vacuolar proton pump), alpha polypeptide, 70 kD, isoform 1 (ATP6A1);
ATPase, H+ transporting, lysosomal (vacuolar proton pump), beta polypeptide, 56/58 kD, isoform 2 (ATP6B2);
ATPase, H+ transporting, lysosomal (vacuolar proton pump), member J (ATP6J);
ATPase, H+ transporting, lysosomal (vacuolar proton pump), subunit 1 (ATP6S1);
ATP-binding cassette 50 (TNF-alpha stimulated) (ABC50);
ATP-binding cassette protein M-ABC1 (mitochondrial);
ATP-dependent RNA helicase;
atrial natriuretic factor (ANF);
autoantigen (Hs.75528);
autoantigen (Hs.75682);
autoantigen La/SS-B;
axin (AXIN1);
axonemal dynein heavy chain (DNAH17);
basement membrane-induced gene (ICB1);
basic leucine zipper nuclear factor 1 (JEM-1) (BLZF1);
basic transcription factor 3 (BTF3);
basigin (BSG);
BC-2;
B-cell CLL/lymphoma 6 (zinc finger protein
51) (BCL6);
B-cell translocation gene 1, anti-proliferative (BTG);
BCL2/adenovirus E1B 19 kD-interacting protein 2 (BNIP2);
BCL2/adenovirus E1B 19 kD-interacting protein 3-like (BNIP3L);
beclin 1 (coiled-coil, myosin-like BCL2-interacting protein) (BECN1);
beta-1,2-N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase II (MGAT2);
beta-2-microglobulin (B2M);
beta-hexosaminidase alpha chain (HEXA);
beta-tubulin;
BING4;
biphenyl hydrolase-like (serine hydrolase) (BPHL);
bone marrow stromal cell antigen 1 (BST1);
box-dependent myc-interacting protein isoform BIN1-10 (BIN1);
brain my047 protein;
branched chain keto acid dehydrogenase E1, alpha polypeptide (maple syrup urine disease) (BCKDHA);
BRCA1 associated protein-1 (ubiquitin carboxy-terminal hydrolase) (BAP1);
breakpoint cluster region protein, uterine leiomyoma, 1;
barrier to autointegration factor (BCRP1);
breakpoint cluster region protein, uterine leiomyoma, 2 (BCRP2);
bromodomain-containing protein, 140 kD (peregrin) (BR140);
Bruton'"'"'s agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase (Btk);
Bruton'"'"'s tyrosine kinase (BTK);
BS4;
BTG2 (BTG2);
BTK region clone ftp;
BTK region clone ftp-3;
BUB3 (budding uninhibited by benzimidazoles 3, yeast) homolog (BUB3);
butyrate response factor 1 (EGF-response factor
1) (BRF1);
butyrophilin (BTF1);
butyrophilin like receptor;
CAG repeat containing (CTG4A);
CAGH32;
calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase (CaM kinase) II gamma (CAMK2G);
calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase kinase (KIAA0787);
calmodulin 1 (phosphorylase kinase, delta) (CALM1);
calnexin (CANX);
calpain, large polypeptide L1 (CAPN1);
calpain, large polypeptide L2 (CANP2);
calpain, small polypeptide (CAPN4);
calpastatin (CAST);
Calponin 2;
calponin 2 (CNN2);
calumenin (CALU);
cAMP response element-binding protein CRE-Bpa (H_GS165L15.1);
cAMP-dependent protein kinase type II (Ht31);
canicular multispecific organic anion transporter (CMOAT2);
capping protein (actin filament) muscle Z-line, alpha 1 (CAPZA1);
capping protein (actin filament) muscle Z-line, alpha 2 (CAPZA2);
capping protein (actin filament) muscle Z-line, beta (CAPZB);
capping protein (actin filament), gelsolin-like (CAPG);
carbamoyl-phosphate synthetase 2, aspartate transcarbamylase, and dihydroorotase (CAD);
carbonic anhydrase V, mitochondrial (CA5);
carboxypeptidase D (CPD);
cardiac beta-myosin heavy chain;
carnitine/acylcarnitine translocase (CACT);
Cas-Br-M (murine) ecotropic retroviral transforming sequence (cbl);
casein kinase 1, alpha 1 (CSNK1A1);
casein kinase 2, alpha 1 polypeptide (CSNK2A1);
casein kinase I gamma 3L (CSNK1G3L);
CASP8 and FADD-like apoptosis regulator (CFLAR);
caspase 1, apoptosis-related cysteine protease (interleukin 1, beta, convertase) (CASP1);
caspase 10, apoptosis-related cysteine protease (CASP10);
caspase 3, apoptosis-related cysteine protease (CASP3);
caspase 4, apoptosis-related cysteine protease (CASP4);
caspase 5, apoptosis-related cysteine protease (CASP5);
caspase 8, apoptosis-related cysteine protease (CASP8);
caspase 9, apoptosis-related cysteine protease (CASP9);
catalase (CAT);
catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT);
catenin (cadherin-associated protein), alpha 1 (102 kD) (CTNNA1);
cathelicidin antimicrobial peptide (CAMP);
cathepsin B (CTSB);
cathepsin C(CTSC);
cathepsin D (lysosomal aspartyl protease) (CTSD);
cathepsin E (CTSE);
cathepsin G (CTSG);
cathepsin S (CTSS);
cathepsin W (lymphopain) (CTSW);
CCAAT/enhancer binding protein (C/EBP), alpha (CEBPA);
CCAAT/enhancer binding protein (C/EBP), delta (CEBPB);
CCAAT-box-binding transcription factor (CBF2);
CD14 antigen (CD14);
CD1C antigen, c polypeptide (CD1C);
CD2 antigen (cytoplasmic tail)-binding protein 2 (CD2BP2);
CD2 antigen (p50), sheep red blood cell receptor (CD2);
CD2 cytoplasmic tail-binding protein 1 (CD2BP1);
CD20 antigen (CD20);
CD20 receptor (S7);
CD22 antigen (CD22);
CD24 signal transducer;
CD33 antigen (gp67) (CD33);
CD33 antigen-like 2;
CD36 antigen (collagen type I receptor, thrombospondin receptor) (CD36);
CD37 antigen (CD37);
CD38 alt;
CD39 antigen (CD39);
CD3D antigen, delta polypeptide (TiT3 complex) (CD3D);
CD3E antigen, epsilon polypeptide (TiT3 complex) (CD3E);
CD3G antigen, gamma polypeptide (TiT3 complex) (CD3G);
CD3Z antigen, zeta polypeptide (TiT3 complex) (CD3Z);
CD3-zeta (clone pBS NK1);
CD4 antigen (p55) (CD4);
CD44 antigen (homing function and Indian blood group system (CD44);
CD48 antigen (B-cell membrane protein) (CD48);
CD53 antigen (CD53);
CD63 antigen (melanoma 1 antigen) (CD63);
CD68 antigen (CD68);
CD74 antigen (invariant polypeptide of major histocompatibility complex, class II antigen-associated) (CD74);
CD79A antigen (immunoglobulin-associated alpha) (CD79A);
CD79B antigen (immunoglobulin-associated beta) (CD79B);
CD8 antigen, alpha polypeptide (p32) (CD8A);
CD8 antigen, beta polypeptide 1 (p37) (CD8B1);
CD81 antigen (target of antiproliferative antibody 1 (CD81);
CD84 antigen (leukocyte antigen) (CD84);
CD86 antigen;
CD9 antigen (p24) (CD9);
CD97 antigen (CD97);
CDC23 (cell division cycle 23, yeast, homolog) (CDC23);
CDC37 homolog;
Cdc42 effector protein 3 (CEP3);
CDC-like kinase (CLK);
CDC-like kinase 2 (CLK2);
CDW52 antigen (CAMPATH-1 antigen) (CDW52);
cell cycle progression restoration 8 protein (CPR8);
cell division cycle 10 (homologous to CDC10 of S. cerevisiae) (CDC10);
cell division cycle 20, S. cerevisiae homolog (CDC20);
cell division cycle 25B (CDC25B);
cell division cycle 42 (GTP-binding protein, 25 kD) (CDC42);
centromere protein B (80 kD) (CENPB);
cep250 centrosome associated protein;
ceroid-lipofuscinosis, neuronal 2, late infantile (Jansky-Bielschowsky disease) (CLN2);
CGI-19 protein;
chaperonin containing TCP1, subunit 3 (gamma) (CCT3);
chaperonin containing TCP1, subunit 4 (delta) (CCT4);
chaperonin containing TCP1, subunit 6A (zeta
1) (CCT6A);
chaperonin containing TCP1, subunit 7 (eta) (CCT7);
Chediak-Higashi syndrome 1 (CHS1);
chemokine (C-C motif) receptor 2 (CCR2);
chemokine (C-C motif) receptor 7 (CCR7);
chemokine (C-X3-C) receptor 1 (CX3CR1);
chemokine (C-X-C motif), receptor 4 (fusin) (CXCR4);
chitinase 3-like 1 (cartilage glycoprotein-39) (CHI3L1);
chitinase 3-like 2 (CHI3L2);
chloride channel 6 (CLCN6);
Chloride intracellular channel 1 (CLIC1);
chondroitin sulfate proteoglycan 2 (versican) (CSPG2);
chondroitin sulfate proteoglycan core protein;
chromodomain helicase DNA binding protein 1 (CHD1);
chromodomain helicase DNA binding protein 1-like (CHD1L);
chromodomain helicase DNA binding protein 2 (CHD2);
chromodomain helicase DNA binding protein 3 (CHD3);
chromodomain helicase DNA binding protein 4 (CHD4);
chromosome 1 open reading frame 7 (C1ORF7);
chromosome 1 specific transcript KIAA0493;
chromosome 17 open reading frame 1B (C17ORF1B);
chromosome 4 open reading frame 1 (C4ORF1);
chromosome condensation 1-like (CHC1L);
chromosome X open reading frame 5 (CXORF5);
chromosome-associated polypeptide C(CAP-C);
cig42;
cig5;
citrate synthase (CS);
class I major histocompatibility antigen (HLA-Cw3);
clathrin assembly protein lymphoid myeloid leukemia (CALM);
clathrin heavy chain;
clathrin, heavy polypeptide-like 2 (CLTCL2);
clathrin-associated/assembly/adaptor protein, medium 1 (CLAPM1);
cleavage stimulation factor, 3′
pre-RNA, subunit 3, 77 kD (CSTF3);
clk3;
clone 23815 (Hs.82845);
clone 24592 mRNA sequence;
Clq/MBUSPA receptor ClqR(p);
clusterin (complement lysis inhibitor, SP-40,40, sulfated glycoprotein 2, testosterone-repressed prostate message 2, apolipoprotein J) (CLU);
CMP-sialic acid transporter (CMPST);
CMRF35;
c-myc oncogene containing coxIII;
coagulation factor II (thrombin) receptor (F2R);
coagulation factor V (proaccelerin, labile factor) (F5);
coagulation factor XIII a subunit;
coagulation factor XIII, A1 polypeptide (F13A1);
coated vesicle membrane protein (RNP24);
coatomer protein complex, subunit alpha (COPA);
Cofilin 1 (non-muscle) (CFL1);
cold inducible RNA-binding protein (CIRBP);
cold shock domain protein A (CSDA);
collagen, type IX, alpha 2 (COL9A2);
colony stimulating factor 1 receptor, formerly McDonough feline sarcoma viral (v-fms) oncogene homolog (CSF1R);
colony stimulating factor 2 receptor, beta, low-affinity (granulocyte-macrophage) (CSF2RB);
colony stimulating factor 3 receptor (granulocyte) (CSF3R);
complement component 5 receptor 1 (C5a ligand) (C5R1);
conserved gene amplified in osteosarcoma (OS4);
COP9 (constitutive photomorphogenic, Arabidopsis, homolog) subunit 3 (COPS3);
COP9 homolog (HCOP9);
COPII protein, homolog of s. cerevisiae SEC23p (SEC23A);
copine I (CPNE1);
coproporphyrinogen oxidase (coproporphyria, harderoporphyria) (CPO);
core-binding factor, beta subunit (CBFB);
coronin;
cot (cancer Osaka thyroid) oncogene (COT);
cryptochrome 1 (photolyase-like) (CRY1);
CTD (carboxy-terminal domain, RNA polymerase II, polypeptide A) phosphatase, subunit 1 (CTDP1);
C-terminal binding protein 1 (CTBP1);
C-terminal binding protein 2 (CTBP2);
CUG triplet repeat, RNA-binding protein 1 (CUGBP1);
cullin 1 (CUL1);
cullin 3 (CUL3);
cut (Drosophila)-like 1 (CCAAT displacement protein) (CUTL1);
cyclin D2 (CCND2);
cyclin D3 (CCND3);
cyclin G1 (CNNG1);
cyclin I;
cyclin T2 (CNNT2);
cyclin-dependent kinase 2 (CDK2);
cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor (p27Kip1);
cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 1A (p21, Cip1) (CDKN1A);
cystatin B (stefin B) (CSTB);
cysteine and glycine-rich protein 3 (cardiac LIM protein) (CSRP3);
cytidine deaminase (CDA);
cytochrome b(-245) beta chain N-terminal region (X-linked granulomatous disease gene);
cytochrome b-245, beta polypeptide (chronic granulomatous disease) (CYBB);
cytochrome c oxidase subunit IV (COX4);
cytochrome c oxidase subunit Vb (COX5B);
cytochrome c oxidase subunit VII-related protein (COX7RP);
cytokine suppressive anti-inflammatory drug binding protein 1 (p38 MAP kinase) (CSBP1);
Cytoplasmic antiproteinase=38 kda intracellular serine proteinase inhibitor;
cytotoxic granule-associated RNA-binding protein p40-TIA-1;
D123 (D123);
D2-2;
D38;
damage-specific DNA binding protein 1 (127 kD) (DDB1);
DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box binding protein 1 (DDXBP1);
DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide (72 KD) (P72);
DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide 1 (DDX1);
DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide 15 (DDX15);
DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide 16 (DDX16);
DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide 3 (DDX3);
DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide 5 (RNA helicase, 68 kD) (DDX5);
DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide 6 (RNA helicase, 54 kD) (DDX6);
DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide 8 (RNA helicase, 54 kD) (DDX8);
DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide 9 (RNA helicase A, nuclear DNA helicase II;
leukophysin) (DDX9);
DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide, Y chromosome (DBY);
Death associated protein 3 (DAP3);
death effector domain-containing protein (DEDD);
death-associated protein 6 (DAXX);
dedicator of cyto-kinesis 2 (DOCK2);
defender against cell death 1 (DAD1);
Defensin, alpha 1, myeloid-related sequence (DEFA1);
DEK gene (D6S231E);
delta sleep inducing peptide, immunoreactor (DSIPI);
dendritic cell protein (GA17);
deoxycytidine kinase (DCK);
deoxyribonuclease II, lysosomal (DNASE2);
DGS-I;
diacylglycerol kinase;
diacylglycerol kinase alpha (DAGK1) (clone
24);
diaphanous (Drosophila, homolog) 1 (DIAPH1);
diaphorase (NADH) (cytochrome b-5 reductase) (DIA1);
differentiated Embryo Chondrocyte expressed gene 1 (DEC1);
differentiation antigen CD20;
DiGeorge syndrome critical region gene 2 (DGCR2);
dihydrolipoamide dehydrogenase (E3 component of pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, 2-oxo-glutarate complex, branched chain keto acid dehydrogenase complex) (DLD);
dihydrolipoamide S-acetyltransferase (E2 component of pyruvate dehydrogenase complex) (DLAT);
dihydropyrimidinase-like 2 (DPYSL2);
dinG gene;
diptheria toxin resistance protein required for diphthamide biosynthesis (Saccharomyces)-like 2 (DPH2L2);
DJ-1 protein;
Dmx-like 1 (DMXL1);
DNA (cytosine-5-)-methyltransferase 1 (DNMT1);
DNA fragmentation factor, 40 kD, beta subunit (DFFB);
DNA fragmentation factor, 45 kD, alpha subunit (DFFA);
DNA mismatch repair protein (hMLH1);
DNA segment on chromosome X (unique) 648 expressed sequence;
DNA segment, single copy probe LNS-CAI/LNS-CAII (deleted in polyposis (D5S346);
DnaJ protein;
docking protein 2, 56 kD (DOK2);
dolichyl-diphosphooligosaccharide-protein glycosyltransferase (DDOST);
dolichyl-phosphate mannosyltransferase polypeptide 1, catalytic subunit (DPM1);
down-regulated by activation (immunoglobulin superfamily) (DORA);
D-type cyclin-interacting protein 1 (DIP1);
dual specificity phosphatase 1 (DUSP1);
dual specificity phosphatase 11 (RNA/RNP complex 1-interacting) (dusp11);
dual specificity phosphatase 3 (vaccinia virus phosphatase VH1-related) (DUSP3);
dual specificity phosphatase 6 (DUSP6);
dynactin 1 (p150, Glued (Drosophila) homolog) (DYTN1);
dynamin 2 (DNM2);
dynein, cytoplasmic, light intermediate polypeptide 2 (DNCLI2);
dyskeratosis congenita 1, dyskerin (DKC1);
dystonia 1, torsion (autosomal dominant) (DYT1);
dystrobrevin, beta (DTNB);
dystrophia myotonica-containing WD repeat motif (DMWD);
dystrophia myotonica-protein kinase (DMPK);
E1B-55 kDa-associated protein;
E2F transcription factor 3 (E2F3);
E2F transcription factor 4, p107/p130-binding (E2F4);
E2F transcription factor 5, p130-binding (E2F5);
E74-like factor 1 (ets domain transcription factor) (ELF1);
E74-like factor 4 (ets domain transcription factor) (ELF4);
early development regulator 2 (homolog of polyhomeotic
2) (EDR2);
EBV induced G-protein coupled receptor (EBI2);
ecotropic viral integration site 2B (EVI2B);
ectin, galactoside-binding, soluble, 1 (galectin
1) (LGALS1);
EGF-like-domain, multiple 4 (EGFL4);
eIF-2-associated p67 homolog;
elav-type RNA-binding protein (ETR-3);
electron-transfer-flavoprotein, alpha polypeptide (glutaric aciduria II) (ETFA);
ELK3, ETS-domain protein (SRF accessory protein
2) (ELK3);
elongation factor 1-beta;
elongation factor Ts (mitochondrial protein);
elongation factor Tu-nuclear encoded mitochondrial;
eMDC II protein;
ems1 sequence (mammary tumor and squamous cell carcinoma-associated (p80/85 src substrate) (EMS1);
endogenous retroviral element HC2;
endosulfine alpha (ENSA);
endothelial differentiation, sphingolipid G-protein-coupled receptor, 1 (EDG1);
endothelial monocyte-activating polypeptide (EMAPII);
enolase 1, (alpha) (ENO1);
enolase 2, (gamma, neuronal) (ENO2);
enolase-alpha;
enoyl Coenzyme A hydratase 1, peroxisomal (ECH1);
enoyl Coenzyme A hydratase, short chain, 1, mitochondrial (ECHS1);
epidermal growth factor receptor pathway substrate 15 (EPS15);
epithelial membrane protein 3 (EM[P3);
Epoxide hydrolase 1, microsomal (xenobiotic) (EPHX1);
ERF-2;
ERp28 protein;
erythrocyte membrane protein;
erythroleukemic cells K562;
EST (Hs.189509);
estrogen receptor-related protein (hERRa1);
ET binding factor 1 (SBF1);
ets domain protein ERF;
eukaryotic translation elongation factor 1 alpha 1 (EEF1A1);
eukaryotic translation elongation factor 1 beta 2 (EEF1B2);
eukaryotic translation elongation factor 1 delta (guanine nucleotide exchange protein) (EEF1D);
eukaryotic translation elongation factor 1 gamma (EEF1G);
eukaryotic translation elongation factor 2 (EEF2);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2, subunit 1 (alpha, 35 kD) (EIF2S1);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2, subunit 2 (beta, 38 kD) (EIF2S2);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2, subunit 3 (gamma, 52 kD) (EIF2S3);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3, subunit 10 (theta, 150/170 kD) (EIF3S10);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3, subunit 2 (beta, 36 kD) (EIF3S2);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3, subunit 3 (gamma, 40 kD) (EIF3S3);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3, subunit 4 (delta, 44 kD) (EIF3S4);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3, subunit 6 (48 kD) (EIF3S6);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3, subunit 6 (EIF3S6);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3, subunit 7 (zeta, 66/67 kD) (EIF3S7);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3, subunit 8, 110 KD (EIF3S8);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4 gamma, 1 (EIF4G);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4 gamma, 1 (EIF4G1);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4 gamma, 2 (EIF4G2);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4 gamma, 2 (EIFG2);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4A, isoform 1 (EIF4A1);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4A, isoform 2 (EIF4A2);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4B (EIF4B);
Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4E binding protein 2 (EIF4EBP2);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 5 (EIF5);
eukaryotic translation termination factor 1 (ETF1);
EV12 protein;
Ewing sarcoma breakpoint region 1 (EWSR1);
EWS/FLI1 activated transcript 2 homolog (EAT-2);
EWS-E1A-F chimeric protein;
excision repair cross-complementing rodent repair deficiency, complementation group 1 (includes overlapping antisense sequence) (ERCC1);
excision repair cross-complementing rodent repair deficiency, complementation group 5 (xeroderma pigmentosum, complementation group G (Cockayne syndrome)) (ERCC5);
exostoses (multiple)-like 3 (EXTL3);
F11;
F1-ATPase beta subunit (F-1 beta);
Fanconi anaemia group A;
Fanconi anemia, complementation group A (FANCA);
far upstream element (FUSE) binding protein 1 (FUBP1);
farnesyl diphosphate synthase (farnesyl pyrophosphate synthetase, dimethylallyltranstransferase, geranyltranstransferase) (FDPS);
farnesyl-diphosphate farnesyltransferase 1 (FDFT1);
farnesyltransferase, CAAX box, beta (FNTB);
Fas-ligand associated factor 1;
fatty-acid-Coenzyme A ligase, long-chain 1 (FACL1);
Fc fragment of IgA, receptor for (FCAR);
Fc fragment of IgE, high affinity I, receptor for;
gamma polypeptide (FCER1G);
Fc fragment of IgE, low affinity II, receptor for (CD23A) (FCER2);
Fc fragment of IgG, low affinity IIa, receptor for (CD32);
Fc fragment of IgG, low affinity IIa, receptor for (CD32) (FCGR2A);
Fc fragment of IgG, low affinity IIIa, receptor for (CD16) (FCGR3A);
Fc fragment of IgG, receptor, transporter, alpha (FCGRT);
fc-fgr;
Fc-gamma-receptor IIIB (FCGR3B);
feline sarcoma (Snyder-Theilen) viral (v-fes)/Fujinami avian sarcoma (PRCII) viral (v-fps) oncogene homolog (FES) c-fes/fps);
female sterile homeotic-related gene 1 (mouse homolog) (FSRG1);
ferritin L-chain;
ferritin, heavy polypeptide 1 (FTH1);
fetal Alzheimer antigen (FALZ);
fetal Ig heavy chain variable region;
fibrillarin (FBL);
fibrinogen-like protein 2 (T49);
ficolin (collagen/fibrinogen domain-containing) 1 (FCN1);
filamin A, alpha (actin-binding protein-280) (FLNA);
filamin B, beta (actin-binding protein-278) (FLNB);
Finkel-Biskis-Reilly murine sarcoma virus (FBR-MuSV) ubiquitously expressed (fox derived);
ribosomal protein S30 (FAU);
FK-506 binding protein;
FK506-binding protein 1A (12 kD) (FKBP1A);
FK506-binding protein 1B (12.6 kD) (FKBP1B);
FK506-binding protein 5 (FKBP5);
Flightless I (Drosophila) homolog (FLII);
FLN29 (FLN29);
flotillin 2 (FLOT2);
folate receptor 2 (fetal) (FOLR2);
forkhead (Drosophila) homolog (rhabdomyosarcoma) like 1 (FKHRL1);
Formyl peptide receptor 1 (FPR1);
formyl peptide receptor-like 1 (FPRL1);
fragile X mental retardation 1 (FMR1);
fragile X mental retardation, autosomal homolog 1 (FXR1);
Friend leukemia virus integration 1 (FLI1);
fructose-bisphosphatase 1 (FBP1);
FSHD-associated repeat DNA, proximal region;
fucose-1-phosphate guanylyltransferase (FPGT);
full length insert cDNA clone ZA78A09;
full length insert cDNA YP07G10;
fumarate hydratase (FH);
FYN-binding protein (FYB-120/130) (FYB);
G protein beta subunit-like protein 12.3;
G protein-coupled receptor kinase 6 (GPRK6);
G1 to S phase transition 1 (GSPT1);
GA-binding protein transcription factor, beta subunit 2 (47 kD) (GABPB2);
galactose-1-phosphate uridylyltransferase (GALT);
galactosidase, beta 1 (GLB1);
galectin-9 isoform;
gamma2-adaptin (G2AD);
gamma-actin;
gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) B receptor 1 (GABBR1);
GATA-binding protein 2 (GATA2);
GATA-binding protein 3 (GATA3);
GCN5 (general control of amino-acid synthesis, yeast, homolog)-like 1 (GCN5L1);
GDP dissociation inhibitor 1 (GDI1);
GDP dissociation inhibitor 2 (GCI2);
GDS-related protein (HKE1.5);
gelsolin (amyloidosis, Finnish type) (GSN);
general transcription factor II, I (GTF2I);
general transcription factor II, i, pseudogene 1 (GTF2IP1);
general transcription factor IIF, polypeptide 1 (74 kD subunit) (GTF2F1);
general transcription factor IIH, polypeptide 3 (34 kD subunit) (GTF2H3);
general transcription factor IIH, polypeptide 4 (52 kD subunit) (GTF2H4);
general transcription factor IIIA (GTF3A);
general transcription factor IIIC, polypeptide 1 (alpha subunit, 220 kD) (GTF3C1);
general transcription factor IIIC, polypeptide 2 (beta subunit, 110 kD) (GTF3C2);
germline immunoglobulin heavy chain (IGHV@);
germline immunoglobulin heavy chain, variable region;
germline immunoglobulin heavy chain, variable region, (21-2);
GLE1 (yeast homolog)-like, RNA export mediator (GLE1L);
glia maturation factor, beta (GMFB);
glioma-associated oncogene homolog (zinc finger protein) (GLI);
globin, alpha 2;
glucocorticoid receptor (GRL);
glucos phosphate isomerase (CONTAINS LARGE REPEAT);
glucosamine (N-acetyl)-6-sulfatase (Sanfilippo disease IIID) (GNS);
glucose transporter-like protein-III (GLUT3);
glucosidase, alpha;
acid (Pompe disease, glycogen storage disease type II) (GAA);
glucosidase, beta;
acid (includes glucosylceramidase) (GBA);
glutamate dehydrogenase 1 (GLUD1);
glutamate-ammonia ligase (glutamine synthase) (GLUL);
glutamate-cysteine ligase (gamma-glutamylcysteine synthetase), catalytic (72.8 kD) (GLCLC);
glutamine cyclotransferase;
glutamine-fructose-6-phosphate transaminase 1 (GFPT1);
glutaminyl-tRNA synthetase;
glutaminyl-tRNA synthetase (QARS);
glutamyl-prolyl-tRNA synthetase (EPRS);
glutathione peroxidase 1 (GPX1);
glutathione peroxidase 4 (phospholipid hydroperoxidase) (GPX4);
glutathione S-transferase pi (GSTP1);
glutathione S-transferase subunit 13 homolog;
glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase (GAPD);
glycogenin (GYG);
glycophorin C (Gerbich blood group) (GYPC);
glycoprotein M6B (GPM6B);
glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS);
glyoxalase I (lactoyl glutathione lyase) (GLYI);
golgi autoantigen, golgin subfamily a, 1 (GOLGA1);
golgi autoantigen, golgin subfamily a, 4 (GOLGA4);
golgi autoantigen, golgin subfamily b, macrogolgin (with transmembrane signal), 1 (GOLGB1);
gp25L2 protein;
grancalcin;
granulin (GRN);
Granulysin (NKG5);
granzyme A (granzyme 1, cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated serine esterase
3) (GZMA);
GRB2-related adaptor protein (GRAP);
Grb2-related adaptor protein 2 (GRAP2);
GRO1 oncogene (melanoma growth stimulating activity, alpha) (GRO1);
growth arrest and DNA-damage-inducible gene (GADD153);
growth arrest-specific 7 (GAS7);
growth factor receptor-bound protein 2 (GRB2);
GS1 (protein of unknown function);
GS3955;
GTP binding protein 1 (GTPBP1);
GTPase activating protein-like (GAPL);
Gu protein (GURDB);
guanine nucleotide binding protein (G protein), alpha inhibiting activity polypeptide 2 (GNAI2);
guanine nucleotide binding protein (G protein), alpha inhibiting activity polypeptide 3 (GNAI3);
guanine nucleotide binding protein (G protein), alpha stimulating activity polypeptide 1 (GNAS1);
guanine nucleotide binding protein (G protein), alpha transducing activity polypeptide 2 (GNAT2);
guanine nucleotide binding protein (G protein), beta 5 (GNB5);
guanine nucleotide binding protein (G protein), beta polypeptide 1 (GNB1);
guanine nucleotide binding protein (G protein), q polypeptide (GNAQ);
guanine nucleotide binding protein-like 1 (GNL1);
guanine nucleotide exchange factor;
guanine nucleotide regulatory factor (LFP40);
GUANINE-MONOPHOSPHATE SYNTHETASE (GMPS);
guanosine-diphosphatase like protein;
guanylate binding protein 1, interferon-inducible, 67 kD (GBP1);
guanylate binding protein 2, interferon-inducible (GBP2);
H2A histone family, member C(H2AFC);
H2A histone family, member Y (H2AY);
H2B histone family, member L (H2BFL);
h2-calponin;
H-2K binding factor-2;
H3 histone family, member K (H3FK);
H3 histone, family 3A (H3F3A);
H3 histone, family 3B (H3.3B) (H3F3B);
hbc647;
heat shock 27 kD protein 1 (HSPB1);
heat shock 40 kD protein 1 (HSPF1);
heat shock 60 kD protein 1 (chaperonin) (HSPD1);
heat shock 70 kD protein 1 (HSPA1A);
heat shock 70 kD protein 5 (glucose-regulated protein, 78 kD) (HSPA5);
heat shock 70 kD protein 6 (HSP70B′
) (HSPA6);
heat shock 70 kD protein 9B (mortalin-2) (HSPA9B);
heat shock factor binding protein 1 (HSBP1);
heat shock protein 90;
heat shock protein, DNAJ-like 2 (HSJ2);
Hect (homologous to the E6-AP (UBE3A) carboxyl terminus) domain and RCC1 (CHC1)-like domain (RLD) 1 (HERC1);
hect domain and RLD 2 (HERC2);
helicase-like protein (HLP);
helix-loop-helix protein HE47 (E2A);
hematopoietic cell-specific Lyn substrate 1 (HCLS1);
heme oxygenase (decycling) 1 (HMOX1);
hemoglobin beta (beta globin);
hemoglobin, alpha 1 (HBA1);
hemoglobin, beta (HBB);
emokine (C-X-C motif), receptor 4 (fusin) (CXCR4);
hemopoietic cell kinase (HCK);
hepatitis C-associated microtubular aggregate protein p44;
hepatoma-derived growth factor;
Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome (HPS);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein (C1/C2) (HNRPC);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein A/B (HNRPAB);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein A1 (HNRPA1);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein A2/B1 (HNRPA2B1);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein D (hnRNP D);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein D-like (HNRPDL);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein F (HNRPF);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein G (HNRPG);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein H1 (H) (HNRPH1);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein K (HNRPK);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein R (HNRPR);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein U (scaffold attachment factor A) (HNRPU);
hexokinase 1 (HK1);
hexokinase 2 (HK2);
hexokinase 3 (HK3);
hexosaminidase A (alpha polypeptide) (HEXA;
HGMP07I gene for olfactory receptor;
High density lipoprotein binding protein (HDLBP);
high-mobility group (nonhistone chromosomal) protein 1 (HMG1);
High-mobility group (nonhistone chromosomal) protein 17 (HMG17);
high-mobility group (nonhistone chromosomal) protein 2 (HMG2);
high-mobility group (nonhistone chromosomal) protein isoforms I and Y;
histidine ammonia-lyase (HAL);
histidyl-tRNA synthetase (HARS);
histocompatibility antigen (HLA-Cw3), class I;
histone deacetylase 1 (HDAC);
histone deacetylase 1 (HDAC1);
histone deacetylase 5 (NY-CO-9);
HK2 gene for hexokinase II;
HL9 monocyte inhibitory receptor precursor;
HLA class I heavy chain (HLA-Cw*1701);
HLA class I locus C heavy chain;
HLA class II SB 4-beta chain;
HLA class III region containing NOTCH4 gene;
HLA-A;
HLA-A*7402;
HLA-A11;
HLA-B;
HLA-B associated transcript-1 (D6S81E);
HLA-B associated transcript-2 (D6S51E);
HLA-B*1529;
HLA-Bw72 antigen;
HLA-C gene (HLA-Cw*0701 allele);
HLA-Cw*0701;
HLA-Cw*0801;
HLA-Cw*1203;
HLA-DR alpha-chain;
HLA-F (leukocyte antigen F);
HMG box containing protein 1;
Hmob33;
HMT1 (hnRNP methyltransferase, S. cerevisiae)-like 1 (HRMT1L1);
homeodomain-interacting protein kinase 3 (HIPK3);
homolog of Drosophila past (PAST);
homolog of yeast (S. cerevisiae) ufd2 (UFD2);
HPV16 E1 protein binding protein;
HRIHFB2157;
hsc70 gene for 71 kd heat shock cognate protein;
HSPC012;
HSPC021;
HsPex13p;
htra2-beta-2;
HU-K4;
hunc18b2;
HUNKI;
huntingtin-interacting protein HYPA/FBP11 (HYPA);
hVps41p (HVPS41);
hydroxyacyl-Coenzyme A dehydrogenase/3-ketoacyl-Coenzyme A thiolase/enoyl-Coenzyme A hydratase (trifunctional protein), alpha subunit (HADHA);
hydroxyacyl-Coenzyme A dehydrogenase/3-ketoacyl-Coenzyme A thiolase/enoyl-Coenzyme A hydratase (trifunctional protein), beta subunit (HADHB);
hydroxysteroid (17-beta) dehydrogenase 1 (HSD17B1);
hypoxia-inducible factor 1, alpha subunit (basic helix-loop-helix transcription factor) (HIF1A);
Ia-associated invariant gamma-chain (clones lambda-y (1,2,3));
iduronate 2-sulfatase (Hunter syndrome) (IDS);
Ig heavy chain variable region;
Ig heavy chain variable region (VH4DJ) (clone T14.4);
Ig heavy chain variable region (VH4DJ) (clone T22.18);
Ig J chain;
Ig kappa;
IG kappa light chain variable region A20;
Ig lambda light chain variable region (26-34ITIIIF120);
Ig mu-chain VDJ4-region;
Ig rearranged anti-myelin kappa-chain (V-J4-region, hybridoma AE6-5);
Ig rearranged H-chain mRNA V-region;
IgG Fc binding protein (FC(GAMMA)BP);
IgG heavy chain variable region (vH26);
IgM heavy chain (C mu, membrane exons);
IkB kinase-beta (IKK-beta);
IL-1 receptor type II;
IL2-inducible T-cell kinase (ITK);
immediate early protein (ETR101);
immunoglobulin light chain (lambda);
Immunoglobulin (CD79A) binding protein 1 (IGBP1);
immunoglobulin G Fc receptor IIIB;
immunoglobulin gamma 3 (Gm marker) (IGHG3);
immunoglobulin heavy chain (VI-3B);
immunoglobulin heavy chain J region;
immunoglobulin heavy chain J region, B1 haplotype;
immunoglobulin heavy chain variable region (IGH) (clone 21u-48);
immunoglobulin heavy chain variable region (IGH) (clone 23u-1);
immunoglobulin heavy chain variable region V3-43 (IGHV@);
immunoglobulin heavy chain variable region V3-7 (IGHV@);
immunoglobulin IgH heavy chain Fd fragment;
immunoglobulin kappa light chain;
immunoglobulin kappa light chain V-segment A27;
immunoglobulin light chain;
immunoglobulin light chain variable region (lambda IIIb subgroup) from IgM rheumatoid factor;
immunoglobulin M heavy chain V region=anti-lipid A antibody;
immunoglobulin mu (IGHM);
immunoglobulin mu binding protein 2 (IGHMBP2);
immunoglobulin superfamily, member 2 (IGSF2);
imogen 38 (IMOGEN38);
IMP (inosine monophosphate) dehydrogenase 1 (IMPDH1);
IMP (inosine monophosphate) dehydrogenase 2 (IMPDH2);
inc finger protein 151 (pHZ-67) (ZNF151);
inc finger protein, C2H2, rapidly turned over (ZNF20);
inducible poly(A)-binding protein (IPABP);
inducible protein (Hs.80313);
inhibitor of DNA binding 2, dominant negative helix-loop-helix protein (ID2);
inhibitor of kappa light polypeptide gene enhancer in B-cells, kinase complex-associated protein (IKBKAP);
inositol 1,3,4-trisphosphate 5/6-kinase;
inositol 1,4,5 trisphosphate receptor type 1 (ITPR1);
inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate 3-kinase B (ITPKB);
inositol monophosphatase;
inositol polyphosphate-5-phosphatase, 145 kD (INPP5D);
Ins(1,3,4,5)P4-binding protein;
insulin (INS);
insulin like growth factor 2 receptor (IGF2R);
integral membrane protein 1 (ITM1);
integral membrane protein 2C (ITM2C);
integral membrane protein Tmp21-I (p23);
integrin beta 4 binding protein (ITGB4BP);
integrin, alpha 2b (platelet glycoprotein IIb of IIb/IIIa complex, antigen CD41B) (ITGA2B);
integrin, alpha 5 (fibronectin receptor, alpha polypeptide) (ITGA5);
integrin, alpha L (antigen CD11A (p180), lymphocyte function-associated antigen 1;
alpha polypeptide) (ITGAL);
integrin, alpha M (complement component receptor 3, alpha;
also known as CD11b (p170), macrophage antigen alpha polypeptide) (ITGAM);
integrin, alpha X (antigen CD11C (p150), alpha polypeptide) (ITGAX);
integrin, beta 1 (fibronectin receptor, beta polypeptide, antigen CD29 includes MDF2 MSK12) (ITGB1);
integrin, beta 2 (antigen CD18 (p95), lymphocyte function-associated antigen 1;
macrophage antigen 1 (mac-1) beta subunit) (ITGB2);
integrin, beta 7 (ITGB7);
Integrin-linked kinase (ILK);
intercellular adhesion molecule 1 (CD54), human rhinovirus receptor (ICAM1);
intercellular adhesion molecule 2 (ICAM2);
intercellular adhesion molecule 3 (ICAM3);
intercellular adhesion molecule 4, Landsteiner-Wiener blood group (ICAM4);
Interferon consensus sequence binding protein 1 (ICSBP1);
interferon regulatory factor 2 (IRF2);
interferon regulatory factor 1 (IRF1);
interferon regulatory factor 5 (IRF5);
interferon, gamma-inducible protein 16 (IFI16);
interferon, gamma-inducible protein 30 (IFI30);
interferon-induced protein 17 (IFI17);
interferon-induced protein 54 (IFI54);
interferon-inducible (1-8D);
interferon-inducible (1-8U);
interferon-related developmental regulator 1 (IFRD1);
interferon-stimulated transcription factor 3, gamma (48 kD) (ISGF3G);
interleukin 1 receptor, type II (IL1R2);
Interleukin 10 receptor, beta (I.10RB);
interleukin 12 receptor, beta 1 (IL12RB1);
interleukin 13 receptor, alpha 1 (IL13RA1);
interleukin 16 (lymphocyte chemoattractant factor) (IL16);
interleukin 18 receptor 1 (IL18R1);
interleukin 2 receptor, beta (IL2RB);
interleukin 2 receptor, gamma (severe combined immunodeficiency) (IL2RG);
interleukin 4 receptor (IL4R);
interleukin 6 receptor (IL6R);
interleukin 6 signal transducer (gp130, oncostatin M receptor) (IL6ST);
interleukin 7 receptor (IL7R);
interleukin 8 (IL8);
interleukin 8 receptor alpha (IL8RA);
interleukin 8 receptor, beta (IL8RB);
interleukin enhancer binding factor 2, 45 kD (ILF2);
interleukin enhancer binding factor 3, 90 kD (ILF3);
interleukin-1 receptor-associated kinase 1 (IRAK1);
interleukin-10 receptor, alpha (IL10RA);
interleukin-11 receptor, alpha (IL11RA);
intestinal carboxylesterase;
IQ motif containing GTPase activating protein 1 (IQGAP1);
IQ motif containing GTPase activating protein 2 (IQGAP2);
isocitrate dehydrogenase 1 (NADP+), soluble (IDH1);
isocitrate dehydrogenase 2 (NADP+), mitochondrial (IDH2);
isocitrate dehydrogenase 3 (NAD+) alpha (DH3A);
isocitrate dehydrogenase 3 (NAD+) gamma (IDH3G);
isolate TzCCR5-179 CCR5 receptor (CCR5);
isopentenyl-diphosphate delta isomerase (IDI1);
Janus kinase 1 (a protein tyrosine kinase) (JAK1);
Janus kinase 2 (a protein tyrosine kinase) (JAK2);
Jk-recombination signal binding protein (RBPJK);
JM1 protein;
jumonji (mouse) homolog (JMJ);
jun D proto-oncogene (JUND);
jun dimerization protein;
junction plakoglobin (JUP);
kangai 1 (suppression of tumorigenicity 6, prostate;
CD82 antigen (R2 leukocyte antigen, antigen detected by monoclonal and antibody IA4)) (KAI1);
karyopherin (importin) beta 1 (KPNB1);
karyopherin (importin) beta 2 (KPNB2);
karyopherin alpha 1 (importin alpha
5) (KPNA1);
karyopherin alpha 2 (RAG cohort 1, importin alpha
1) (DPNA2);
karyopherin alpha 3 (importin alpha
4) (KPNA3);
karyopherin alpha 4 (KPNA4);
Katanin (80 kDa) (KAT);
KE03 protein;
Keratin 8 (KRT8);
ketohexokinase (fructokinase) (KHK);
KIAA0002 (KIAA0002);
KIAA0005 (KIAA0005);
KIAA0010 (KIAA0010);
KIAA0016 (KIAA0016);
KIAA0017 (KIAA0017);
KIAA0022 (KIAA0022);
KIAA0023 (KIAA0023);
KIAA0024 (KIAA0024);
KIAA0025 (KIAA0025);
KIAA0026 (KIAA0026);
KIAA0027;
KIAA0032 (KIAA0032);
KIAA0040 (KIAA0040);
KIAA0050 (KIAA0050);
KIAA0053 (KIAA0053);
KIAA0057 (KIAA0057);
KIAA0058 (KIAA0058);
KIAA0063 (KIAA0063);
KIAA0064 (KIAA0064);
KIAA0066;
KIAA0068;
KIAA0073;
KIAA0081;
KIAA0084;
KIAA0085;
KIAA0088;
KIAA0090;
KIAA0092 (KIAA0092);
KIAA0094;
KIAA0095 (KIAA0095);
KIAA0096;
KIAA0097 (KIAA0097);
KIAA0099 (KIAA0099);
KIAA0102 (KIAA0102);
KIAA0105;
KIAA0121 (KIAA0121);
KIAA0123;
KIAA0128;
KIAA0129 (KIAA0129);
KIAA0130 (KIAA0130);
KIAA0136;
KIAA0137 (KIAA0137);
KIAA0140 (KIAA0140);
KIAA0141 (KIAA0141);
KIAA0144 (KIAA0144);
KIAA0146;
KIAA0148 (KIAA0148);
KIAA0154;
KIAA0156;
KIAA0160;
KIAA0161 (KIAA0161);
KIAA0164 (KIAA0164);
KIAA0167 (KIAA0167);
KIAA0168 (KIAA0168);
KIAA0169;
KIAA0171 (KIAA0171);
KIAA0174 (KIAA0174);
KIAA0179;
KIAA0181;
KIAA0183;
KIAA0184;
KIAA0193 (KIAA0193);
KIAA0200 (KIAA0200);
KIAA0210 (KIAA0210);
KIAA0217;
KIAA0219;
KIAA0222 (KIAA0222);
KIAA0223;
KIAA0229;
KIAA0232 (KIAA0232);
KIAA0233 (KIAA0233);
KIAA0235;
KIAA0239;
KIAA0240;
KIAA0242;
KIAA0248;
KIAA0249 (KIAA0249);
KIAA0253;
KIAA0254 (KIAA0254);
KIAA0255 (KIAA0255);
KIAA0262 (KIAA0262);
KIAA0263 (KIAA0263);
KIAA0264;
KIAA0268;
KIAA0275 (KIAA0275);
KIAA0304 (KIAA0304);
KIAA0308;
KIAA0310 (KIAA0310);
KIAA0315 (KIAA0315);
KIAA0329 (KIAA0329);
KIAA0330;
KIAA0332;
KIAA0333;
KIAA0336 (KIAA0336);
KIAA0342 (KIAA0342);
KIAA0344 (KIAA0344);
KIAA0354 (KIAA0354);
KIAA0365 (KIAA0365);
KIAA0370;
KIAA0372 (KIAA0372);
KIAA0373 (KIAA0373);
KIAA0375 (KIAA0375);
KIAA0377 (KIAA0377);
KIAA0379;
KIAA0380 (KIAA0380);
KIAA0382 (KIAA0382);
KIAA0383;
KIAA0386 (KIAA0386);
KIAA0392;
KIAA0397 (KIAA0397);
KIAA0403;
KIAA0404;
KIAA0409;
KIAA0421;
KIAA0428 (KIAA0428);
KIAA0429 (KIAA0429);
KIAA0430 (KIAA0430);
KIAA0432 (KIAA0432);
KIAA0435 (KIAA0435);
KIAA0438 (KIAA0438);
KIAA0447 (KIAA0447);
KIAA0449;
KIAA0456;
KIAA0458 (KIAA0458);
KIAA0462;
KIAA0465;
KIAA0476 (KIAA0476);
KIAA0489;
KIAA0494 (KIAA0494);
KIAA0515;
KIAA0521;
KIAA0525;
KIAA0530;
KIAA0532;
KIAA0537 (KIAA0537);
KIAA0540;
KIAA0543;
KIAA0544;
KIAA0549;
KIAA0551;
KIAA0554;
KIAA0561;
KIAA0562 (KIAA0562);
KIAA0563 (KIAA0563);
KIAA0569 (KIAA0569);
KIAA0571 (KIAA0571);
KIAA0573;
KIAA0576;
KIAA0580;
KIAA0584;
KIAA0592;
KIAA0596;
KIAA0598 (KIAA0598);
KIAA0608;
KIAA0614;
KIAA0615 (KIAA0615);
KIAA0621;
KIAA0648;
KIAA0652 (KIAA0652);
KIAA0668;
KIAA0669;
KIAA0671 (KIAA0671);
KIAA0675 (KIAA0675);
KIAA0676;
KIAA0677 (KIAA0677);
KIAA0678;
KIAA0679;
KIAA0680 (KIAA0680);
KIAA0692;
KIAA0697;
KIAA0699;
KIAA0700;
KIAA0737 (KIAA0737);
KIAA0748 (KIAA0748);
KIAA0763 (KIAA0763);
KIAA0769 (KIAA0769);
KIAA0782;
KIAA0796;
KIAA0798 (KIAA0798);
KIAA0823;
KIAA0854;
KIAA0856;
KIAA0860;
KIAA0862;
KIAA0873;
KIAA0892;
KIAA0906;
KIAA0991;
killer cell lectin-like receptor subfamily B, member 1 (KLRB1);
killer cell lectin-like receptor subfamily C, member 4 (KLRC4);
kinectin 1 (kinesin receptor) (KTN1);
kinesin family member 5B (KIF5B);
kinesin-like DNA binding protein;
Kruppel related gene (clone pHKR1RS);
Kruppel-like zinc finger protein Zf9;
kruppel-type zinc finger protein, ZK1;
L apoferritin;
lactate dehydrogenase A (LDHA);
lactate dehydrogenase B (LDHB);
lactotransferrin (LTF);
laminin receptor 1 (67 kD);
Ribosomal protein SA (LAMR1);
laminin receptor homolog {3′
region};
laminin, gamma 1 (formerly LAMB2) (LAMC1);
latent transforming growth factor beta binding protein 1 (LTBP1);
LDLC;
lectin, galactoside-binding, soluble, 2 (galectin
2) (LGALS2);
lectin, galactoside-binding, soluble, 3 binding protein (galectin 6 binding protein) (LGALS3BP);
leucine rich repeat (in FLII) interacting protein 1 (LRRFIP1);
leucocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor-5 (LIR-5);
leucocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor-6a (LIR-6);
leucocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor-7 (LIR-7);
leukemia virus receptor 1 (GLVR1);
leukocyte adhesion protein p150, 95 alpha subunit;
leukocyte antigen, HLA-A2;
leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor (MIR-10);
leukocyte tyrosine kinase (LTK);
leukocyte-associated Ig-like receptor 1 (LIAR1);
leukotriene A4 hydrolase (LTA4H);
leupaxin (LDPL);
ligase I, DNA, ATP-dependent (LIG1);
LIM and SH3 protein 1 (LASP1);
LIM domain kinase 2 (LIMK2);
Line-1 repeat mRNA with 2 open reading frames;
Line-1 repeat with 2 open reading frames;
lipase A, lysosomal acid, cholesterol esterase (Wolman disease) (LIPA);
lipase, hormone-sensitive (LIPE);
LMP7;
Lon protease-like protein (LONP);
low density lipoprotein-related protein 1 (alpha-2-macroglobulin receptor) (LRP1);
low density lipoprotein-related protein-associated protein 1 (alpha-2-macroglobulin receptor-associated protein
1) (LRPAP1);
low-affinity Fc-gamma receptor IIA;
LPS-induced TNF-alpha factor (PIG7);
Lst-1;
L-type amino acid transporter subunit LAT1;
lung resistance-related protein (LRP);
Lymphocyte antigen 75 (LY75);
lymphocyte antigen 9 (LY9);
lymphocyte antigen HLA-B*4402 and HLA-B*5101;
lymphocyte cytosolic protein 1 (L-plastin) (LCP1);
lymphocyte cytosolic protein 2 (SH2 domain-containing leukocyte protein of 76 kD) (LCP2);
lymphocyte glycoprotein T1/Leu-1;
lymphocyte-specific protein 1 (LSP1);
lymphocyte-specific protein tyrosine kinase (LCK);
lymphoid phosphatase LyP1;
lymphoid-restricted membrane protein (LRMP);
lymphoid-specific SP100 homolog (LYSP100-A);
lymphoma proprotein convertase (LPC);
lysosomal-associated membrane protein 1 (LAMP1);
Lysosomal-associated membrane protein 2 (LAMP2);
lysozyme (renal amyloidosis) (LYZ);
lysyl-tRNA synthetase (KARS);
M phase phosphoprotein 10 (U3 small nucleolar ribonucleoprotein) (MPP-10);
M1-type and M2-type pyruvate kinase;
m6A methyltransferase (MT-A70);
mab-21 (C. elegans)-like 1 (MAB21L1);
MacMarcks;
macrophage-associated antigen (MM130);
MADS box transcription enhancer factor 2, polypeptide A (myocyte enhancer factor 2A) (MEF2A);
MADS box transcription enhancer factor 2, polypeptide C (myocyte enhancer factor 2C) (MEF2C);
major histocompatibility complex class I beta chain (HLA-B);
major histocompatibility complex, class I, A (HLA-A);
major histocompatibility complex, class I, C (HAL-C);
major histocompatibility complex, class I, E (HLA-E);
major histocompatibility complex, class II, DM BETA (HLA-DMB);
major histocompatibility complex, class II, DP beta 1 (HLA-DPB1);
major histocompatibility complex, class II, DR beta 1 (HLA-DRB1);
Major histocompatibility complex, class II, Y box-binding protein I;
DNA-binding protein B (YB1);
malate dehydrogenase 1, NAD (soluble) (mdh1);
malate dehydrogenase 1, NAD (soluble) (MDH1);
malonyl-CoA decarboxylase precursor;
maltase-glucoamylase (mg);
manic fringe (Drosophila) homolog (MFNG);
mannose phosphate isomerase (MPI);
mannose phosphate isomerase (mpi);
mannose-6-phosphate receptor (cation dependent) (M6PR);
mannose-P-dolichol utilization defect 1 (MPDU1);
mannosidase, alpha B, lysosomal (MANB);
mannosyl (alpha-1,3-)-glycoprotein beta-1,2-N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase (MGAT1);
map 4q35 repeat region;
MAP kinase-interacting serine/threonine kinase 1 (MKNK1);
MAP/ERK kinase kinase 3 (MEKK3);
MAP/ERK kinase kinase 5 (MEKK5);
MAP/microtubule affinity-regulating kinase 3 (MARK3);
Marenostrin protein;
MASL1;
MAX dimerization protein (MAD);
MaxiK potassium channel beta subunit;
MBP-2 for MHC binding protein 2;
Meis (mouse) homolog 3 (MEIS3);
melanoma-associated antigen p97 (melanotransferrin);
membrane cofactor protein (CD46, trophoblast-lymphocyte cross-reactive antigen) (MCP);
membrane component, chromosome 17, surface marker 2 (ovarian carcinoma antigen CA125) (M17S2);
membrane metallo-endopeptidase (neutral endopeptidase, enkephalinase, CALLA, CD10) (MME);
membrane protein, palmitoylated 1 (55 kD) (MPP1);
meningioma expressed antigen (MGEA);
meningioma-expressed antigen 11 (MEA11);
Menkes Disease (ATP7A) putative Cu++-transporting P-type ATPase;
metallothionein 2A (MT2A);
metaxin 1 (MTX1);
methionine adenosyltransferase II, alpha (MAT2A);
methylene tetrahydrofolate dehydrogenase (NAD+ dependent), methenyltetrahydrofolate cyclohydrolase (MTHFD2);
methylenetetrahydrofolate dehydrogenase (NADP+ dependent), methenyltetrahydrofolate cyclohydrolase, formyltetrahydrofolate synthetase (MTHFD1);
methyltransferase, putative;
MHC class 1 region;
MHC class I antigen (HLA-A2);
MHC class I antigen (HLA-A33);
MHC class I antigen (HLA-C);
MHC class I antigen B*5801 (HLA-B);
MHC class I antigen HLA-A (HLA-A);
MHC class I antigen HLA-A (HLA-A-2402 allele);
MHC class I antigen HLA-A11K;
MHC class I antigen HLA-B (B*48 allele);
MHC class I antigen HLA-B (HLA-B*1502 allele);
MHC class I antigen HLA-B (HLA-B*40MD);
MHC class I antigen HLA-B (HLA-B*4103 allele);
MHC class I antigen HLA-B gene (HLA-B*4402 variant allele);
MHC class I antigen HLA-B GN00110-B*3910;
MHC class I antigen HLA-Cw*04011;
MHC class I antigen R69772HLA-A (A*0302);
MHC class I antigen SHCHA (HLA-B*4403 variant);
MHC class I histocompatibility antigen (HLA-B) (clone C21/14);
MHC class I HLA B71;
MHC class I HLA-A (Aw33.1);
MHC class I HLA-B;
MHC class I HLA-B (HLA-B-08NR allele);
MHC class I HLA-B*3512;
MHC class I HLA-B44.2 chain;
MHC class I HLA-B51-cd3.3;
MHC class I HLA-C allele;
MHC class I HLA-Cw*0803;
MHC class I HLA-Cw6;
MHC class I lymphocyte antigen A2 (A2.1) variant DK1;
MHC class I mic-B antigen;
MHC class I polypeptide-related sequence A (MICA);
MHC class II DNA Sequence (clone A37G7-1C11);
MHC class II DQ-alpha associated with DRw6, DQw1 protein;
MHC class II DQ-beta associated with DR2, DQw1 protein;
MHC class II HAL-DQ-LTR5 (DQ,w8) DNA fragment, long terminal repeat region;
MHC class II HLA-DRB1;
MHC class II HLA-DRw11-beta-I chain (DRw11.3);
MHC class II lymphocyte antigen (DPw4-beta-1);
microsomal stress 70 protein ATPase core (stch);
microtubule-associated protein 4 (MAP4);
microtubule-associated protein 7 (MAP7);
mineralocorticoid receptor (aldosterone receptor) (MLR);
minichromosome maintenance deficient (S. cerevisiae) 3 (MCM31);
minichromosome maintenance deficient (S. cerevisiae) 3-associated protein (MCM3AP);
minichromosome maintenance deficient (S. cerevisiae) 5 (cell division cycle
46) (MCM5);
mitochondrial 16S rRNA;
mitochondrial ATP synthase (F1-ATPase) alpha subunit;
mitochondrial ATP synthase c subunit (P1 form);
mitochondrial cytochrome b small subunit of complex II;
mitochondrial DNA loop attachment sequences (clone LAS34);
mitochondrial DNA polymerase accessory subunit precursor (MtPolB) nuclear gene encoding mitochondrial protein;
mitochondrial DNA, complete genome;
mitochondrial inner membrane preprotein translocase Tim17a;
mitochondrial loop attachment sequence (clone LAS88);
mitochondrial NADH dehydrogenase subunit 2 (ND2);
mitochondrial translational initiation factor 2 (MTIF2);
mitochondrion cytochrome b;
mitogen inducible gene mig-2;
mitogen-activated protein kinase-activated protein kinase 3 (MAPKAPK3);
MLN51;
moesin (MSN);
monocytic leukaemia zinc finger protein (MOZ);
MOP1 ( );
motor protein (Hs.78504);
mouse double minute 2, human homolog of;
p53-binding protein (MDM2);
M-phase phosphoprotein 6 (MPP-6);
M-phase phosphoprotein, mpp11;
MPS1;
Mr 110,000 antigen;
mu-adaptin-related protein-2;
mu subunit of AP-4 (MU-ARP2);
murine leukemia viral (bmi-1) oncogene homolog (BMI1);
mutant (Daudi) beta2-microglobulin;
mutated in Alzheimer'"'"'s diseases (MCC);
myeloid cell leukemia sequence 1 (BCL2-related) (MCL1);
myeloid cell nuclear differentiation antigeN (MNDA);
myeloid differentiation primary response gene (88) (MYD88);
myeloid leukemia factor 2 (MLF2);
myeloid/lymphoid or mixed-lineage leukemia (trithorax (Drosophila) homolog);
translocated to, 7 (MLLT7);
MYH9 (cellular myosin heavy chain);
myomesin (M-protein) 2 (165 kD) (MYOM2);
myosin IE (MYO1E);
myosin light chain kinase (MLCK);
myosin phosphatase, target subunit 1 (MYPT1);
myosin, heavy polypeptide 9, non-muscle (MYH9);
myosin, light polypeptide, regulatory, non-sarcomeric (20 kD) (MLCB);
myosin-I beta;
myristoylated alanine-rich protein kinase C substrate (MARCKS, 80K-L) (MACS);
myxovirus (influenza) resistance 1, homolog of murine (interferon-inducible protein p78) (MX1);
myxovirus (influenza) resistance 2, homolog of murine (MX2);
N-acetylgalactosaminidase, alpha-(NAGA);
N-acetylglucosamine receptor 1 (thyroid) (NAGR1);
NACP/alpha-synuclein;
N-acylaminoacyl-peptide hydrolase (APEH);
N-acylsphingosine amidohydrolase (acid ceramidase) (ASAH);
NAD+-specific isocitrate dehydrogenase beta subunit precursor (encoding mitochondrial protein);
NADH dehydrogenase (ubiquinone) 1 alpha subcomplex, 5 (13 kD, B13) (NDUFA5);
NADH dehydrogenase (ubiquinone) 1 beta subcomplex, 5 (16 kD, SGDH) (NDUFB5);
NADH dehydrogenase (ubiquinone) Fe-S protein 2 (49 kD) (NADH-coenzyme Q eductase) (NDUFS2);
NADH dehydrogenase (ubiquinone) flavoprotein 2 (24 kD) (NDUFV2);
NADH;
ubiquinone dehydrogenase 51 kDa subunit (NDUFV1);
Nardilysin (N-arginine dibasic convertase) (NRD1);
nascent-polypeptide-associated complex alpha polypeptide (NACA);
natural killer cell group 7 sequence (NKG7);
natural killer cell transcript 4 (NK4);
natural killer-associated transcript 3 (NKAT3);
natural killer-associated transcript 5 (NKAT5);
natural killer-tumor recognition sequence (NKTR);
N-deacetylase/N-sulfotransferase (heparan glucosaminyl) 2 (NDST2);
Ndr protein kinase;
Nedd-4-like ubiquitin-protein ligase WWP1;
nel (chicken)-like 2 (NELL2);
N-ethylmaleimide-sensitive factor attachment protein, alpha (NAPA);
N-ethylmaleimide-sensitive factor attachment protein, gamma (NAPG);
neural precursor cell expressed, developmentally down-regulated 5 (NEDD5);
neural precursor cell expressed, developmentally down-regulated 8 (NEDD8);
neuregulin 1 (NRG1);
neuroblastoma RAS viral (v-ras) oncogene homolog (NRAS);
Neurofibromin 2 (bilateral acoustic neuroma) (NF2);
neuronal apoptosis inhibitory protein (NAIP);
neuronal cell adhesion molecule (NRCAM);
neuropathy target esterase (NTE);
neurotrophic tyrosine kinase, receptor, type 1 (NTRK1);
neutrophil cytosolic factor 4 (40 kD);
NG31;
nibrin (NBS);
NIK;
Ninjurin 1;
nerve injury-induced protein-1;
Nmi;
N-myristoyltransferase 1 (NMT1);
No arches-like (zebrafish) zinc finger protein (NAR);
non-histone chromosome protein 2 (S. cerevisiae)-like 1 (NHP2L1);
non-muscle alpha-actinin;
non-muscle myosin alkali light chain (Hs.77385);
non-neuronal enolase (EC 4.2.1.11);
non-receptor tyrosine phosphatase 1;
normal keratinocyte substraction library mRNA, clone H22a;
notch group protein (N);
novel protein;
novel T-cell activation protein;
N-sulfoglucosamine sulfohydrolase (sulfamidase) (SGSH);
nsulin induced gene 1 (INSIG1);
integrin, alpha 4 (antigen CD49D, alpha 4 subunit of VLA-4 receptor) (ITGA14);
interferon, gamma-inducible protein 16 (IFI16);
interleukin 1, beta (IL1RB);
nuclear antigen H731-like protein;
nuclear antigen Sp100 (SP100);
nuclear autoantigenic sperm protein (histone-binding) (NASP);
Nuclear domain 10 protein (NDP52);
Nuclear factor (erythroid-derived
2)-like 2 (NFE2L2);
Nuclear factor of kappa light polypeptide gene enhancer in B-cells 1 (p105) (NFKB1);
nuclear factor of kappa light polypeptide gene enhancer in B-cells inhibitor, alpha (NFKBIA);
nuclear factor related to kappa B binding protein (NFRKB);
nuclear mitotic apparatus protein 1 (NUMA1);
nuclear receptor coactivator 2 (GRIP1);
nuclear receptor coactivator 3 (AIB3);
nuclear receptor coactivator 4 (ELE1);
nuclear receptor interacting protein 1 (NRIP1);
nuclear respiratory factor 1 (NRF1);
nuclear RNA helicase, DECD variant of DEAD box family (DDXL);
nuclear transcription factor Y, alpha (NFYA);
nuclear transcription factor, X-box binding 1 (NFX1);
nuclear transport factor 2 (placental protein
15) (PP15);
nucleobindin 1 (NUCB1);
nucleolar phosphoprotein p130 (P130);
nucleolar protein (KKE/D repeat) (NOP56);
nucleolar protein (MSP58);
nucleolar protein 1 (12 kD) (NOL1);
nucleolar protein p40;
nucleolin (NCL);
nucleophosmin (nucleolar phosphoprotein B23, numatrin) (NPM1);
nucleophosmin-retinoic acid receptor alpha fusion protein NPM-RAR long form;
nucleoporin 153 kD (NUP153);
nucleoporin 98 kD (NUP98);
nucleosome assembly protein;
nucleosome assembly protein 1-like 1 (NAP1L1);
nucleosome assembly protein 1-like 4 (NAP1L4);
nucleosome assembly protein, 5′
UTR;
olfactory receptor (OR7-141);
oligodendrocyte myelin glycoprotein (OMG);
O-linked N-acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc) transferase (UDP-N-acetylglucosamine;
polypeptide-N-acetylglucosaminyl transferase) (OGT);
ORF (Hs.77868);
ORF1;
MER37;
origin recognition complex, subunit 2 (yeast homolog)-like (ORC2L);
ornithine aminotransferase (gyrate atrophy) (OAT);
ornithine decarboxylase (ODC);
ornithine decarboxylase antizyme, ORF 1 and ORF 2;
orphan receptor (Hs.100221);
OS-9 precurosor;
ovel centrosomal protein RanBPM (RANBPM);
over-expressed breast tumor protein;
oviductal glycoprotein 1, 120 kD (OVGP1);
oxidase (cytochrome c) assembly 1-like (OXAIL);
oxoglutarate dehydrogenase (lipoamide) (OGDH);
oxysterol binding protein (OSBP);
OZF;
p21/Cdc42/Rac1-activated kinase 1 (yeast Ste20-related) (PAK1);
p40;
P47 LBC oncogene;
p53-induced protein (PIG11);
p62 nucleoporin;
p63 mRNA for transmembrane protein;
palmitoyl-protein thioesterase (ceroid-lipofuscinosis, neuronal 1, infantile;
Haltia-Santavuori disease) (PPT);
papillary renal cell carcinoma (translocation-associated) (PRCC);
PAR protein;
PAX3/forkhead transcription factor gene fusion;
paxillin (PXN);
PBK1 protein;
PDZ domain protein (Drosophila inaD-like) (INALD);
peptidase D (PEPD);
peptidylprolyl isomerase A (cyclophilin A) (PPIA);
peptidylprolyl isomerase D (cyclophilin D) (PPID);
peptidylprolyl isomerase E (cyclophilin E) (PPIE);
perforin 1 (preforming protein) (PRF1);
peroxisomal acyl-CoA thioesterase (PTE1);
Peroxisomal acyl-coenzyme A oxidase;
peroxisomal farnesylated protein (PXF);
phorbol-12-myristate-13-acetate-induced protein (PMAIP1);
Phosphate carrier, mitochondrial (PHC);
phosphate cytidylyltransferase 1, choline, alpha isoform (PCYT1A);
phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase delta catalytic subunit;
phosphatidylinositol 4-kinase, catalytic, beta polypeptide (PIK4CB);
phosphatidylinositol glycan, class H (PIGH);
phosphatidylinositol transfer protein (PI-TPbeta);
phosphatidylinositol transfer protein, membrane-associated (PITPNM);
phosphatidylinositol-4-phosphate 5-kinase, type II, alpha (PIP5K2A);
phosphatidylinositol-4-phosphate 5-kinase, type II, beta (PIP5K2B);
phosphodiesterase 7A (PDE7A);
phosphodiesterase IB (PDES1B);
phosphoglucomutase 1 (PGM1);
phosphogluconate dehydrogenase (PGD);
phosphoglycerate kinase 1 (PGK1);
phosphoglycerate mutase 1 (brain) (PGAM1);
phosphoglycerate mutase 2 (muscle) (PGAM2);
phosphoinositide-3-kinase, catalytic, alpha polypeptide (PIK3CA);
phosphoinositide-3-kinase, catalytic, delta polypeptide (PIK3CD);
phosphoinositide-3-kinase, catalytic, gamma polypeptide (PIK3CG);
phospholipase C;
phospholipase C, delta 1 (PLCD1);
phospholipase C, gamma 1 (formerly subtype
148) (PLCG1);
phospholipid scramblase;
phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate synthetase-associated protein 1 (PRPSAP1);
phosphoribosylglycinamide formyltransferase, phosphoribosylglycinamide synthetase, phosphoribosylaminoimidazole synthetase (GART);
phosphorylase kinase, alpha 2 (liver), glycogen storage disease IX (PHKA2);
phosphorylase, glycogen;
brain (PYGB);
phosphorylase, glycogen;
liver (Hers disease, lycogen storage disease type VI) (PYGL);
phosphorylation regulatory protein HP-10;
phosphotidylinositol transfer protein (PITPN);
pigment epithelium-derived factor (PEDF);
pim-1 oncogene (PIM1);
pinin, desmosome associated protein (PNN);
placenta (Diff33);
placenta (Diff48);
plasminogen activator, urokinase receptor (PLAUR);
platelet factor 4 (PF4);
platelet/endothelial cell adhesion molecule (CD31 antigen) (PECAM1);
platelet-activating factor acetylhydrolase 2 (40 kD) (PAFAH2);
platelet-activating factor acetylhydrolase, isoform Ib, alpha subunit (45 kD) (PAFAH1B1);
platelet-activating factor receptor (PTAFR);
pleckstrin (PLEK);
pleckstrin homology, Sec7 and coiled/coil domains 1 (cytohesin
1) (PSCD1);
pleckstrin homology, Sec7 and coiled/coil domains, binding protein (PSCDBP);
pM5 protein;
PMP69;
poly(A) polymerase (PAP);
poly(A)-binding protein-like 1 (PABPL1);
poly(rC)-binding protein 1 (PCBP1);
polyadenylate binding protein;
polycystic kidney disease 1 (autosomal dominant) (PKD1);
polymerase (DNA directed), beta (POLB);
polymerase (DNA directed), gamma (POLG);
polymerase (RNA) II (DNA directed) polypeptide A (220 kD) (POLR2A);
polymyositis/scleroderma autoantigen 2 (100 kD) (PMSCL2);
polypyrimidine tract binding protein (heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein I) (PTB);
positive regulator of programmed cell death ICH-1L (Ich-1);
postmeiotic segregation increased 2-like 12 (PMS2L12);
postmeiotic segregation increased 2-like 8 (PMS2L8);
potassium inwardly-rectifying channel, subfamily J, member 15 (KCNJ15);
potassium voltage-gated channel, KQT-like subfamily, member 1 (KCNQ1);
POU domain, class 2, associating factor 1 (POU2AF1);
POU domain, class 2, transcription factor 1 (POU2F1);
PPAR binding protein (PPARBP);
PPAR gamma2;
pre-B-cell colony-enhancing factor (PBEF);
prefoldin 1 (PFDN1);
prefoldin 5 (PRFLD5);
pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPPA);
pre-mRNA splicing factor SRp20, 5′
UTR;
preprotein translocase (TIM17);
prion protein;
prion protein (p27-30) (Creutzfeld-Jakob disease, Gerstmann-Strausler-Scheinker syndrome, fatal familial insomnia) (PRNP);
procollagen-lysine, 2-oxoglutarate 5-dioxygenase (lysine hydroxylase, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome type VI) (PLOD);
procollagen-proline, 2-oxoglutarate 4-dioxygenase (proline 4-hydroxylase), alpha polypeptide 1 (P4HA1);
procollagen-proline, 2-oxoglutarate 4-dioxygenase (proline 4-hydroxylase), beta polypeptide (protein disulfide isomerase;
thyroid hormone binding protein p55) (P4HB);
profilin 1 (PFN1);
progesterone receptor-associated p48 protein (P48);
prohibitin (PHB);
proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA);
proliferation-associated gene A (natural iller-enhancing factor A) (PAGA);
proline-serine-threonine phosphatase interacting protein 1 (PSTPIP1);
prolyl endopeptidase (PREP);
prolylcarboxypeptidase (angiotensinase C) (PRCP);
promyelocytic leukemia (PML);
properdin P factor, complement (PFC);
pro-platelet basic protein (includes platelet basic protein, beta-thromboglobulin, connective tissue-activating peptide III, neutrophil-activating peptide-2) (PPBP);
proprotein convertase subtilisin/kexin type 7 (PCSK7);
prosaposin (variant Gaucher disease and variant metachromatic leukodystrophy) (PSAP);
prostaglandin-endoperoxide synthase 1 (prostaglandin G/H synthase and cyclooxygenase) (PTGS1);
prostaglandin-endoperoxide synthase 2 (prostaglandin G/H synthase and cyclooxygenase) (PTGS2);
prostate carcinoma tumor antigen (pcta-1);
protease inhibitor 1 (anti-elastase), alpha-1-antitrypsin (PI);
protease inhibitor 2 (anti-elastase), proteasome (prosome, macropain) 26S subunit, ATPase, 1 (PSMC1);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) 26S subunit, ATPase, 3 (PSMC3);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) 26S subunit, ATPase, 4 (PSMC4);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) 26S subunit, ATPase, 5 (PSMC5);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) 26S subunit, ATPase, 6 (PMSC6);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) 26S subunit, non-ATPase, 11 (PSMD11);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) 26S subunit, non-ATPase, 2 (PSMD2);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) 26S subunit, non-ATPase, 5 (PSMD5);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) 26S subunit, non-ATPase, 7 (Mov34 homolog) (PMSD7);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) 26S subunit, on-ATPase, 12 (PMSD12);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) activator subunit 1 (PA28 alpha) (PSME1);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) subunit, alpha type, 3 (PSMA3);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) subunit, alpha type, 5 (PSMA5);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) subunit, alpha type, 7 (PSMA7);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) subunit, beta type, 1 (PSMB1);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) subunit, beta type, 10 (PSMB10);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) subunit, beta type, 6 (PMSB6);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) subunit, beta type, 8 (large multifunctional protease
7) (PSMB8);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) subunit, beta type, 9 (large multifunctional protease
2) (PSMB9);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) subunit, beta type, 7 (PSMB7);
protective protein for beta-galactosidase (galactosialidosis) (PPGB);
protein A alternatively spliced form 2 (A-2);
protein activator of the interferon-induced protein kinase (PACT);
protein disulfide isomerase-related protein (P5);
protein geranylgeranyltransferase type I, beta subunit (PGGT1B);
protein homologous to chicken B complex protein, guanine nucleotide binding (H12.3);
protein kinase A anchoring protein;
protein kinase C substrate 80K-H (PRKCSH);
protein kinase C, beta 1 (PRKCB1);
protein kinase C, delta (PRKCD);
protein kinase C, eta (PRKCH);
Protein kinase C-like 1 (PRKCL1);
protein kinase, AMP-activated, gamma 1 non-catalytic subunit (PRKAG1);
protein kinase, cAMP-dependent, regulatory, type I, alpha (tissue specific extinguisher
1) (PRKAR1A);
protein kinase, DNA-activated, catalytic polypeptide (PRKDC);
protein kinase, mitogen-activated 1 (MAP kinase 1;
p40, p41) (PRKM1);
protein kinase, mitogen-activated 6 (extracellular signal-regulated kinase, p9′
7) (PRKM6);
protein kinase, mitogen-activated, kinase 3 (MAP kinase kinase
3) (PRKMK3);
protein phosphatase 1, catalytic subunit, alpha isoform (PPP1CA);
protein phosphatase 1, regulatory subunit 10 (PPPR10);
protein phosphatase 1, regulatory subunit 7 (PPP1R7);
protein phosphatase 2 (formerly 2A), catalytic subunit, beta isoform (PPP2CB);
protein phosphatase 2 (formerly 2A), regulatory subunit B″
(PR
72), alpha isoform and (PR
130), beta isoform (PPP2R3);
protein phosphatase 2, regulatory subunit B (B56), alpha isoform (PPP2R5A);
protein phosphatase 2, regulatory subunit B (B56), delta isoform (PPP2R5D);
protein phosphatase 2, regulatory subunit B (B56), gamma isoform (PPP2R5C);
protein phosphatase 2A regulatory subunit alpha-isotype (alpha-PR65);
protein phosphatase 4 (formerly X), catalytic subunit (PPP4C);
protein tyrosine kinase 2 beta (PTK2B);
protein tyrosine phosphatase epsilon;
protein tyrosine phosphatase type IVA, member 2 (PTP4A2);
protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 1 (PTPN1);
protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 12 (PTPN12);
protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 2 (PTPN2);
protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 4 (megakaryocyte) (PTPN4);
protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 6 (PTPN6);
protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 7 (PTPN7);
protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, alpha polypeptide (PTPRA);
protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, c polypeptide (PTPRC);
protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, M (PTPRM);
protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, N polypeptide 2 (PTPRN2);
protein with polyglutamine repeat (ERPROT213-21);
protein-kinase, interferon-inducible double stranded RNA dependent inhibitor (PRKRI);
protein-L-isoaspartate (D-aspartate) O-methyltransferase (PCMT1);
proteoglycan 1, secretory granule (PRG1);
prothymosin, alpha (gene sequence
28) (PTMA);
prp28, U5 snRNP 100 kd protein (U5-100K);
PRP4/STK/WD splicing factor (HPRP4P);
PTK7 protein tyrosine kinase 7 (PTK7);
purinergic receptor P2X, ligand-gated ion channel, 4 (P2RX4);
purinergic receptor P2X, ligand-gated ion channel, 7 (P2RX7);
puromycin-sensitive aminopeptidase (PSA);
putative ATP (GTP)-binding protein;
putative brain nuclearly-targeted protein (KIAA0765);
putative chemokine receptor;
GTP-binding protein (HM74);
putative dienoyl-CoA isomerase (ECH1);
putative G-binding protein;
Putative human HLA class II associated protein I (PHAP1);
Putative L-type neutral amino acid transporter (KIAA0436);
putative mitochondrial space protein 32.1;
putative nucleic acid binding protein;
putative outer mitochondrial membrane 34 kDa translocase Htom34;
putative translation initiation factor (SUI1);
putative tumor suppressor protein (123F2);
pyrroline 5-carboxylate reductase;
pyruvate dehydrogenase (lipoamide) alpha 1 (PDHA1);
pyruvate dehydrogenase (lipoamide) beta (PDHB);
Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, lipoyl-containing component X;
E3-binding protein (PDX1);
pyruvate kinase, muscle (PKM2);
RAB, member of RAS oncogene family-like (RABL);
RAB1, member RAS oncogene family (RAB1);
RAB11A, member RAS oncogene family (RAB11A);
RAB11B, member RAS oncogene family (Rab11B);
RAB27A, member RAS oncogene family (RAB27A);
RAB5B, member RAS oncogene family (RAB5B);
RAB6, member RAS oncogene family (RAB6);
RAB7, member RAS oncogene family (RAB7);
RAB7, member RAS oncogene family-like 1 (RAB7L1);
RAB9, member RAS oncogene family (RAB9);
RAD50 (S. cerevisiae) homolog (RAD50);
RAD51 (S. cerevisiae) homolog C (RAD51C);
Radin blood group (RD);
RAE1 (RNA export 1, S. pombe) homolog (RAE1);
ralA-binding protein (RLIP76);
RAN binding protein 2-like 1 (RANBP2L1);
Ran GTPase activating protein 1 (RANGAP1);
transforming growth factor, beta receptor II (70-80 kD) (TGFBR2);
RAP1A, member of RAS oncogene family (RAP1A);
RAR-related orphan receptor C (RORC);
RAS guanyl releasing protein 2 (calcium and DAG-regulated);
ras homolog gene family, member A (ARHA);
ras homolog gene family, member G (rho G) (ARHG);
ras homolog gene family, member H (ARHH);
ras inhibitor (RIN1);
Ras-GTPase activating protein SH3 domain-binding protein 2 (KIAA0660);
Ras-GTPase-activating protein SH3-domain-binding protein (G3BP);
ras-related C3 botulinum toxin substrate 2 (rho family, small GTP binding protein Rac2) (RAC2);
RBQ-1;
regulator of Fas-induced apoptosis (TOSO);
regulator of G protein signalling 6 (RGS6);
regulator of G-protein signalling 14 (RGS14);
regulator of G-protein signalling 2, 24 kD (RGS2);
regulatory factor X, 4 (influences HLA class II expression) (RFX4);
regulatory factor X, 5 (influences HLA class II expression (RFX5);
replication protein A1 (RPA1);
reproduction 8 (D8S2298E);
requiem, apoptosis response zinc finger gene (REQ);
restin (Reed-Steinberg cell-expressed intermediate filament-associated protein) (RSN);
retinoblastoma 1 (including osteosarcoma) (RB1);
retinoblastoma binding protein 2 homolog 1 (RBBP2H1);
retinoblastoma-binding protein 1 (RBBP1);
retinoblastoma-binding protein 2 (RBBP2);
retinoblastoma-binding protein 4 (RBBP4);
retinoblastoma-binding protein 7 (RBBP7);
retinoblastoma-like 2 (p130) (RBL2);
retinoic acid receptor responder (tazarotene induced) 3 (RARRES3);
retinoic acid receptor, alpha (RARA);
retinoic acid responsive (NN8-4AG);
retinoid X receptor beta (RXR-beta);
REV3 (yeast homolog)-like, catalytic subunit of DNA polymerase zeta (REV3L);
Rho GDP dissociation inhibitor (GDI) beta (ARHGDIB);
Rho GTPase activating protein 4 (ARHGAP4);
Rho-associated, coiled-coil containing protein kinase 2 (ROCK2);
ribonuclease 6 precursor (RNASE6PL);
ribonuclease, RNase A family, 2 (liver, eosinophil-derived neurotoxin) (RNASE2);
ribonuclease/angiogenin inhibitor (RNH);
ribonucleoside diphosphate reductase M1 subunit;
ribophorin I (RPN1);
ribophorin II (RPN2);
ribosomal 18S rRNA;
ribosomal 28S RNA;
ribosomal protein L10 (RPL10);
ribosomal protein L11 (RPL11);
ribosomal protein L12 (RPL19);
ribosomal protein L14 (RPL14);
ribosomal protein L17 (RPL17);
ribosomal protein L18 (RPL18);
ribosomal protein L18a (RPL18A);
ribosomal protein L18a homologue;
ribosomal protein L19 (RPL19);
ribosomal protein L21 (RPL21);
ribosomal protein L22 (RPL22);
ribosomal protein L23 (RPL23);
ribosomal protein L23a (RPL23A);
ribosomal protein L26 (RPL26);
ribosomal protein L27 (RPL27);
ribosomal protein L27a (RPL27A);
ribosomal protein L28 (RPL28);
ribosomal protein L29 (RPL29);
ribosomal protein L3 (RPL3);
ribosomal protein L3 homologue;
ribosomal protein L30 (RPL30);
ribosomal protein L31 (RPL31);
ribosomal protein L32 (RPL32);
ribosomal protein L33-like (RPL33L);
ribosomal protein L34 (RPL34);
ribosomal protein L37 (RPL37);
ribosomal protein L37a;
ribosomal protein L38 (PRL38);
ribosomal protein L4 (RPL4);
ribosomal protein L41 (RPL41);
ribosomal protein L5 (RPL5);
ribosomal protein L6 (RPL6);
ribosomal protein L7 (RPL7);
ribosomal protein L7a (RPL7A);
ribosomal protein L8 (RPL8);
ribosomal protein L9 (RPL9);
ribosomal protein S10 (RPS10);
ribosomal protein S11 (RPS11);
ribosomal protein S12 (RPS12);
ribosomal protein S13 (RPS13);
ribosomal protein S14 (RPS14);
ribosomal protein S15 (RPS15);
ribosomal protein S16 (RPS16);
ribosomal protein S17 (RPS17);
ribosomal protein S18;
ribosomal protein S19 (RPS19);
ribosomal protein S2 (RPS2);
ribosomal protein S20 (RPS20);
ribosomal protein S21 (RPS21);
ribosomal protein S23 (RPS23);
ribosomal protein S24 (RPS24);
ribosomal protein S25 (RPS25);
ribosomal protein S26 (RPS26);
ribosomal protein S27 ((metallopanstimulin
1) (RPS27);
ribosomal protein S28 (RPS28);
ribosomal protein S29 (RPS29);
ribosomal protein S3 (RPS3);
ribosomal protein S3A (RPS3A);
ribosomal protein S4, X-linked (RPS4X);
ribosomal protein S4, Y-linked (RPS4Y);
ribosomal protein S5 (RPS5);
ribosomal protein S6 (RPS6);
ribosomal protein S6 kinase, 90 kD, polypeptide 1 (RPS6KA1);
ribosomal protein S6 kinase, 90 kD, polypeptide 2 (RPS6KA2);
ribosomal, protein S7 (RPS7);
ribosomal protein S8 (RPS8);
ribosomal protein S9 (RPS9);
ribosomal protein, large, P0 (RPLP0);
ribosomal protein, large, P1 (RPLP1);
ribosomal RNA 28S;
ribosomal RNA, 16S;
ring finger protein 3 (RNF3);
ring finger protein 4 (RNF4);
ring zinc-finger protein (ZNF127-Xp);
RNA (guanine-7-) methyltransferase (RNMT);
RNA binding motif protein 5 (RBM5);
RNA binding motif, single stranded interacting protein 2 (RBMS2);
RNA helicase (putative), (Myc-regulated DEAD box protein) (MRD8);
RNA helicase-related protein;
RNA pol II largest subunit;
RNA polymerase I subunit (RPA40);
RTVP-1 protein;
S100 calcium-binding protein A10 (annexin II ligand, calpactin I, light polypeptide (p11)) (S100A10);
S100 calcium-binding protein A11 (calgizzarin) (S100A11);
S100 calcium-binding protein A4 (calcium protein, calvasculin, metastasin, murine placental homolog) (S100A4);
S100 calcium-binding protein A8 (calgranulin A) (S100A8);
S100 calcium-binding protein A9 (calgranulin B) (S100A9);
S164 gene;
S-adenosylmethionine decarboxylase 1 (AMD1);
SB class II histocompatibility antigen alpha-chain;
SC35-interacting protein 1 (SRRP129);
scaffold attachment factor B (SAFB);
scRNA molecule, transcribed from Alu repeat;
SEC14 (S. cerevisiae)-like (SEC14L);
SEC23-like protein B (SEC23B);
SEC63 (SEC63);
secreted protein, acidic, cysteine-rich (osteonectin) (SPARC);
secretory carrier membrane protein 1 (SCAMP1);
secretory carrier membrane protein 2 (SCAMP2);
secretory carrier membrane protein 3 (SCAMP3);
secretory granule proteoglycan core (clones lambda-PG[6,7,8]);
selectin L (lymphocyte adhesion molecule
1) (SELL);
selectin P ligand (SELPLG);
sema domain, immunoglobulin domain (Ig), transmembrane domain (TM) and short cytoplasmic domain, (semaphorin) 4D (SEMA4D);
Ser/Arg-related nuclear matrix protein (plenty of prolines 101-like) (SRM160);
serine palmitoyltransferase subunit I (SPTI);
serine palmitoyltransferase, subunit II (LCB2);
serine protease;
serine protease inhibitor, Kunitz type, 2 (SPINT2);
serine/threonine kinase 10 (STK10);
serine/threonine kinase 19 (STK19);
serine/threonine kinase 4 (STK4);
serine/threonine protein kinase KKIALRE (KKIALRE);
serine/threonine protein-kinase (NIK);
serologically defined colon cancer antigen 16 (NY-CO-16);
serologically defined colon cancer antigen 33 (SDCCAG33);
serum/glucocorticoid regulated kinase (SGK);
SET domain, bifurcated 1 (SETDB1);
SH2 domain protein 1A, Duncan'"'"'s disease lymphoproliferative syndrome) (SH2D1A);
SH3 binding protein (SAB);
SH3 domain protein 1B (SH3D1B);
SH3-binding domain glutamic acid-rich protein like (SH3BGRL);
SH3-domain GRB2-like 1 (SH3GL1);
SHC (Src homology 2 domain-containing) transforming protein 1 (SHC1);
siah binding protein 1 (SiahBP1);
Sialomucin CD164 (CD164);
sialophorin (gpL115, leukosialin, CD43) (SNP);
sialyltransferase (STHM);
sialyltransferase 1 (beta-galactoside alpha-2,6-sialytransferase) (SIAT1);
sialyltransferase 4A (beta-galactosidase alpha-2,3-sialytransferase) (SIAT4A);
sialyltransferase 8 (alpha-2,8-polysialytransferase) D (SIAT8D);
signal peptidase 25 kDa subunit;
signal recognition particle 14 kD (homologous Alu RNA-binding protein) (SRP14);
signal recognition particle 54 kD (SRP54);
signal recognition particle 9 kD (SRP9);
signal recognition particle receptor (‘
docking protein’
) SRPR;
signal regulatory protein, beta, 1 (SIRP-BETA-1);
signal sequence receptor, alpha (translocon-associated protein alpha) (SSR1);
signal sequence receptor, beta (translocon-associated protein beta) (SSR2);
signal transducer and activator of transcription (STAT5A);
signal transducer and activator of transcription 2, 113 KD (STAT2);
signal transducer and activator of transcription 3 (acute-phase response factor) (STAT3);
signal transducer and activator of transcription 5A (STAT5A);
signal transducing adaptor molecule (SH3 domain and ITAM motif) 1 (STAM);
silencing mediator of retinoid and thyroid hormone action (SMRT);
SIT protein;
Sjogren syndrome antigen A1 (52 kD, ribonucleoprotein autoantigen SS-A/Ro) (SSA1);
SKAP55 homologue (SKAP-HOM);
skb1 (S. pombe) homolog (SKB1);
skeletal muscle abundant protein;
SMA3 (SMA3);
small acidic protein;
small EDRK-rich factor 2 (SERF2);
small inducible cytokine A5 (RANTES) (SCYA5);
small inducible cytokine subfamily C, member 2 (SCYC2);
small nuclear ribonucleoprotein polypeptide B″
(SNRPB2);
small nuclear ribonucleoprotein polypeptide N (SNRPN);
small nuclear ribonucleoprotein polypeptides B and B1 (SNRPB);
small nuclear RNA activating complex, polypeptide 5, 19 kD (SNAPC5);
smallest subunit of ubiquinol-cytochrome c reductase;
SMC (mouse) homolog, X chromosome (SMCX);
SMT3B protein (2);
SNC19;
SNC73 protein (SNC73);
solute carrier family 1 (neutral amino acid transporter), member 5 (SLC1A5);
Solute carrier family 11 (proton-coupled divalent metal ion transporters), member 1 (SLC11A1);
solute carrier family 17 (sodium phosphate), member 3 (SLC17A3);
solute carrier family 19 (folate transporter), member 1 (SLC19A1);
solute carrier family 2 (facilitated glucose transporter), member 1 (SLC2A1);
solute carrier family 23 (nucleobase transporters), member 2 (SLC23A2);
solute carrier family 25 (mitochondria carrier;
oxoglutarate carrier), member 11 (SLC25A11);
solute carrier family 31 (copper transporters), member 2 (SLC31A2);
solute carrier family 4, anion exchanger, member 2 (erythrocyte membrane protein band 3-like
1) (SLC4A2);
solute carrier family 4, sodium bicarbonate cotransporter, member 8 (SLC4A8);
solute carrier family 7 (cationic amino acid transporter, y+ system), member 5 (SLC7A5);
solute carrier family 7 (cationic amino acid transporter, y+ system), member 6 (SLC7A6);
solute carrier family 9 (sodium/hydrogen exchanger), isoform 6 (SLC9A6);
somatic cytochrome c (HCS);
SON DNA binding protein (SON);
son of sevenless (Drosophila) homolog 1 (SOS1);
sorcin (SRI);
sortilin 1 (SORT1);
sortilin-related receptor, L (DLR class) A repeats-containing (SORL1);
sorting nexin 1 (SNX1);
sorting nexin 2 (SNX2);
Sp3 transcription factor (SP3);
special AT-rich sequence binding protein 1 (binds to nuclear matrix/scaffold-associating DNA'"'"'s) (SATB1);
speckle-type POZ protein (SPOP);
spectrin SH3 domain binding protein 1 (SSH3BP1);
Spectrin, alpha, non-erythrocytic 1 (alpha-fodrin) (SPTAN1);
spermidine/spermine N1-acetyltransferase (SAT);
spermine synthase (SMS);
SPF31 (SPF31);
sphingomyelin phosphodiesterase 1, acid lysosomal (acid sphingomyelinase) (SMPD1);
spinocerebellar ataxia 1 (olivopontocerebellar ataxia 1, autosomal dominant, ataxin
1) (SCA1);
spinocerebellar ataxia 2 (olivopontocerebellar ataxia 2, autosomal dominant, ataxin
2) (SCA2);
spinocerebellar ataxia 7 (olivopontocerebellar atrophy with retinal degeneration) (SCAT);
spliceosome associated protein (SAP
145);
splicing factor (CC1.3) (CC1.3);
splicing factor SRp40-1 (SRp40);
splicing factor, arginine/serine-rich 11 (SFRS11);
splicing factor, arginine/serine-rich 7 (35 kD) (SFRS7);
Src-like-adapter (SLA);
stannin (SNN);
STAT induced STAT inhibitor 3 (SSI-3);
STE20-like kinase 3 (MST-3);
step 11 splicing factor SLU7 (SLUT);
steroid sulfatase;
steroid sulfatase (microsomal), arylsulfatase C, isozyme S (STS);
sterol carrier protein 2 (SCP2);
sterol O-acyltransferase (acyl-Coenzyme A;
cholesterol acyltransferase) 1 (SOAT1);
stimulated trans-acting factor (50 kDa) (STAF50);
Stromal antigen 2 (STAG2);
stromal interaction molecule 1 (STIM1);
structure specific recognition protein 1 (SSRP1);
succinate dehydrogenase complex, subunit A, flavoprotein (Fp) (SDHA);
succinate dehydrogenase complex, subunit B, iron sulfur (Ip) (SDHB);
succinate dehydrogenase complex, subunit C, integral membrane protein, 15 kD (SDHC);
succinate dehydrogenase complex, subunit D, Integral membrane protein (SDHD);
succinate-CoA ligase, GDP-forming, beta subunit (SUCLG2);
succinyl CoA synthetase;
sudD (suppressor of bimD6, Aspergillus nidulans) homolog (SUDD);
sulfotransferase family 1A, phenol-preferring, member 1 (SULT1A1);
superoxide dismutase 1, soluble (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 1 (adult)) (SOD1);
superoxide dismutase 2, mitochondrial (SOD2);
supervillin (SVIL);
suppression of tumorigenicity 5 (ST5);
suppressor of K+ transport defect 1 (SKD1);
suppressor of Ty (S. cerevisiae) 3 homolog (SUPT3H);
suppressor of Ty (S. cerevisiae) 4 homolog 1 (SUPT4H1);
suppressor of Ty (S. cerevisiae) 5 homolog (SUPT5H);
suppressor of Ty (S. cerevisiae) 6 homolog (SUPT6H);
suppressor of variegation 3-9 (Drosophila) homolog 1 (SUV39H1);
survival of motor neuron 1, telomeric (SMN1);
SWI/SNF related, matrix associated, actin dependent regulator of chromatin, subfamily a, member 2 (SMARCA2);
SWI/SNF related, matrix associated, actin dependent regulator of chromatin, subfamily a, member 4 (SMARCA4);
SWI/SNF related, matrix associated, actin dependent regulator of chromatin, subfamily c, member 2 (SMARCC2);
SWI/SNF related, matrix associated, actin dependent regulator of chromatin, subfamily e, member 1 (SMARCE1);
synaptobrevin-like 1 (SYBL1);
synaptosomal-associated protein, 23 kD (SNAP23);
syndecan binding protein (syntenin) (SDCBP);
synovial sarcoma, translocated to X chromosome (SSXT);
syntaxin 16;
syntaxin 3A (STX3A);
syntaxin 6 (STX6);
SYNTAXIN BINDING PROTEIN 3 (UNC-18 HOMOLOG
3) (UNC-18C);
syntaxin-16C;
SYT interacting protein (SIP);
T cell activation, increased late expression (TACTILE);
T cell receptor V alpha gene segment V-alpha-7 (clone IGRa11);
T cell receptor V alpha gene segment V-alpha-w27;
T3 receptor-associating cofactor-1;
tafazzin (cardiomyopathy, dilated 3A (X-linked);
endocardial fibroelastosis 2;
Barth syndrome) (TAZ);
tankyrase, TRF1-interacting ankyrin-related ADP-ribose polymerase (TNKS);
TAR DNA-binding protein-43;
Tat interactive protein (60 kD) (TIP60);
TATA box binding protein (TBP)-associated factor, RNA polymerase II, F, 55 kD (TAF2F);
TATA box binding protein (TBP)-associated factor, RNA polymerase II, G, 32 kD (TAF2G);
TATA box binding protein (TBP)-associated factor, RNA polymerase II, I, 28 kD (TAF2I);
Tax1 (human T-cell leukemia virus type I) binding protein 1 (TAX1BP1);
TBP-associated factor 172 (TAF-172);
T-cell death-associated gene 8 (TDAG8);
T-cell leukemia/lymphoma 1A (TCL1A);
T-cell receptor (delta D2-J1-region) (clone K3B);
T-cell receptor delta gene D2-J1-region, clone K3B;
T-cell receptor germline beta chain gene V-region (V) V-beta-MT1-1;
T-cell receptor germline beta-chain gene J2.1 exon;
T-cell receptor germline delta-chain D-J region;
T-cell receptor interacting molecule (TRIM) protein;
T-cell receptor rearranged delta-chain, V-region (V-delta 3-J);
T-cell receptor, alpha (V,D,J,C) (TCRA);
T-cell receptor, beta cluster (TCRB);
T-cell receptor, delta (V,D,J,C) (TCRD);
T-cell, immune regulator 1 (TCIRG1);
TCF-1 mRNA for T cell factor 1;
TCR eta=T cell receptor (eta-exon);
TCR V Beta 13.2;
TERA;
testis enhanced gene transcript (TEGT);
tetracycline transporter-like protein (TETRAN);
tetratricopeptide repeat domain 1′
(TTC1);
tetratricopeptide repeat domain 2 (TTC2);
tetratricopeptide repeat domain 3 (TTC3);
TGFB1-induced anti-apoptotic factor 1 (TIAF1);
thioredoxin reductase 1 (TXNRD1);
threonyl-tRNA synthetase (TARS);
thrombin inhibitor;
thrombospondin 1 (THBS1);
thromboxane A synthase 1 (platelet, cytochrome P450, subfamily V) (TBXAZ1);
thymidine kinase 2, mitochondrial (TK2);
thymidylate kinase (CDC8);
thymine-DNA glycosylase (TDG);
Thymosin, beta 10 (TMSB10);
thymosin, beta 4, X chromosome (TMSB4X);
thyroid autoantigen 70 kD (Ku antigen) (G22P1);
thyroid hormone receptor coactivating protein (SMAP);
thyroid hormone receptor interactor 7 (TRIP7);
thyroid hormone receptor interactor 8r (TRIP8);
thyroid hormone receptor-associated protein, 230 kDa subunit (TRAP230);
thyroid receptor interacting protein 15 (TRIP15);
TI-227H;
TIA1 cytotoxic granule-associated RNA-binding protein (TIA1);
tissue inhibitor of metalloproteinase 1 (erythroid potentiating activity, collagenase inhibitor) (TIMP1);
tissue inhibitor of metalloproteinase 2 (TIMP2);
tissue specific transplantation antigen P35B (TSTA3);
titin (TTN);
TNF receptor-associated factor 2 (TRAF2);
TNF receptor-associated factor 3 (TRAF3);
toll-like receptor 1 (TLR1);
toll-like receptor 2 (TLR2);
toll-like receptor 4 (TLR4);
toll-like receptor 5 (TILR5);
topoisomerase (DNA) I (TOP1);
topoisomerase (DNA) II beta (180 kD) (TOP2B);
topoisomerase (DNA) III beta (TOP3B);
TR3beta;
TRAF family member-associated NF-kB activator (TANK);
transaldolase 1 (TALDO1);
transaldolase-related protein;
transcobalamin II (TCII);
transcription elongation factor B (SIII), polypeptide 1-like (TCEB1L);
transcription elongation factor B (SIII), polypeptide 3 (110 kD, elongin A) (TCEB3);
transcription factor 12 (HTF4, helix-loop-helix transcription factors
4) (TCF12);
transcription factor 17 (TCF17);
transcription factor 4 (TCR4);
transcription factor 6-like 1 (mitochondrial transcription factor 1-like) (TCF6L1);
transcription factor 7-like 2 (T-cell specific, HMG-box) (TCF7L2);
transcription factor binding to IGHM enhancer 3 (TFE3;
transcription factor IL-4 Stat;
transcription factor TFIID;
transcriptional adaptor 2 (ADA2, yeast, homolog)-like (TADA2L);
transducin (beta)-like 1 (TBL1);
transducin-like enhancer of split 3, homolog of Drosophila E(sp1) (TLE3);
Transformation/transcription domain-associated protein (TRRAP);
transformation-sensitive, transforming growth factor beta-stimulated protein TSC-22 (TSC22);
transforming growth factor, beta receptor III (betaglycan, 300 kD) (TGFBR3);
transforming growth factor, beta-induced, 68 kD (TGFBI);
transgelin 2 (TAGLN2);
trans-Golgi network protein (46, 48, 51 kD isoforms) (TGN51);
transient receptor potential channel 1 (TRPC1);
transketolase (Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome) (TKT);
translation factor sui1 homolog (GC20);
translin (TSN);
translin-associated factor X (TSNAX);
transmembrane glycoprotein (A33);
transmembrane protein (63 kD), endoplasmic reticulum/Golgi intermediate compartment (P63);
transmembrane protein 1 (TMEM2);
transmembrane trafficking protein (TMP21);
transporter 1, ABC (ATP binding cassette) (TAP1);
Treacher Collins-Franceschetti syndrome 1 (TCOF1);
triosephosphate isomerase 1 (TPI1);
tropomyosin;
tropomyosin 4 (TPM4);
TRPM-2 protein;
tryptophan rich basic protein (WRB);
tryptophanyl-tRNA synthetase (WARS);
Ts translation elongation factor, mitochondrial (TSFM);
ttopoisomerase (DNA) II beta (180 kD);
Tu translation elongation factor, mitochondrial (TUFM);
tuberous sclerosis 1 (TSC1);
tuberous sclerosis 2 (TSC2);
tubulin, alpha 1 (testis specific) (TUBA1);
tubulin, alpha, ubiquitous (K-ALPHA-1);
tubulin-specific chaperone c (TBCC);
tumor necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily, member 10 (TNFSF10);
tumor necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily, member 13 (TNFSF13);
tumor necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily, member 14 (TNFSF14);
tumor necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily, member 6 (TNFSF6);
tumor necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily, member 8 (TNFSF8);
tumor necrosis factor alpha-inducible cellular protein containing leucine zipper domains (FIP2);
Tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 7 (TNFRSF7);
tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 10b (TNFRSF10B);
tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 10c, decoy without an intracellular domain (TNFRSF10C);
tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 12 (translocating chain-association membrane protein) (TNFRSF12);
tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 14 (herpesvirus entry mediator) (TNFRSF14);
tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 1B (TNFRSF1B);
tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 6 (TNFRSF6);
tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 7 (TNFRSF7);
tumor necrosis, factor, alpha-induced protein 2 (TNFAIP2);
tumor necrosis factor, alpha-induced protein 3 (TNFAIP3);
tumor protein 53-binding protein, 1 (TP53BP1);
tumor protein p53 (Li-Fraumeni syndrome) (TP53);
Tumor protein p53-binding protein (TP53BPL);
tumor protein, translationally-controlled 1 (TPT1);
tumor rejection antigen (gp96) 1 (TRA1);
tumorous imaginal discs (Drosophila) homolog (TID1);
TXK tyrosine kinase (TXK);
type II integral membrane protein (NKG2-E);
TYRO protein tyrosine kinase binding protein (TYROBP);
tyrosine 3-monooxygenase/tryptophan 5-monooxygenase activation protein, beta polypeptide (YWHAB);
tyrosine 3-monooxygenase/tryptophan 5-monooxygenase activation protein, zeta polypeptide (YWHAZ);
Tyrosine kinase 2 (TYK2);
tyrosyl-tRNA synthetase (YARS);
U1 small nuclear RNA;
U2 (RNU2) small nuclear RNA auxiliary factor 1 (non-standard symbol) (U2AF1);
U22 snoRNA host gene (UHG);
U4/U6-associated RNA splicing factor (HPRP3P);
U49 small nuclear RNA;
U5 snRNP-specific protein (220 kD), ortholog of S. cerevisiae Prp8p (PRP8);
U5 snRNP-specific protein, 116 kD (U5-116 KD);
U5 snRNP-specific protein, 200 kDa (DEXH RNA helicase family) (U5-200-KD);
Uba80 mRNA for ubiquitin;
ubiquinol-cytochrome c reductase (6.4 kD) subunit (UQCR);
ubiquitin A-52 residue ribosomal protein fusion product 1 (UBA52);
ubiquitin activating enzyme E1-like protein (GSA7);
ubiquitin C (UBC);
ubiquitin carboxyl-terminal esterase L3 (ubiquitin thiolesterase) (UCHL3);
ubiquitin fusion degradation 1-like (UFD1L);
ubiquitin protein ligase E3A (human papilloma virus E6-associated protein, Angelman syndrome) (UBE3A);
ubiquitin specific protease 10 (USP10);
ubiquitin specific protease 11 (USP11);
ubiquitin specific protease 15 (USP15);
ubiquitin specific protease 19 (USP19);
ubiquitin specific protease 4 (proto-oncogene) (USP4);
ubiquitin specific protease 7 (herpes virus-associated) (USP7);
ubiquitin specific protease 8 (USP8);
ubiquitin-activating enzyme E1 (A1S9T and BN75 temperature sensitivity complementing) (UBE1);
ubiquitin-activating enzyme E1, like (UBE1L);
UBIQUITIN-BINDING PROTEIN P62;
phosphotyrosine independent ligand for the Lck SH2 domain p62 (P62);
ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2 variant 1 (UBE2V1);
ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2 variant 2 (UBE2V2);
ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2B (RAD6 homolog) (UBE2B);
ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2G 2 (homologous to yeast UBC7) (UBE2G2);
ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2H (homologous to yeast UBC8) (UBE2H);
ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2L 1 (UBE2L1);
ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2L 3 (UBE2L3);
ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2L 6 (UBE2L6);
ubiquitin-like 1 (sentrin) (UBL1);
UDP-N-acetyl-alpha-D-galactosamine;
polypeptide N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase 2 (GalNAc-T2) (GALNT2);
unactive progesterone receptor, 23 Kd (P23);
unconventional myosin-ID (MYO1F);
uncoupling protein homolog (UCPH);
uppressor of Ty (S. cerevisiae) 6 homolog;
upregulated by 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D-3 (VDUP1);
upstream binding factor (hUBF);
UV radiation resistance associated gene (UVRAG);
vacuolar proton-ATPase, subunit D;
V-ATPase, subunit D (ATP6DV);
v-akt murine thymoma viral oncogene homolog 1 (AKT1);
Vanin 2 (VNN2);
vasodilator-stimulated phosphoprotein (VASP);
vav 1 oncogene (VAV1);
vav 2 oncogene (VAV2);
v-crk avian sarcoma virus CT10 oncogene homolog (CRK);
v-erb-b2 avian erythroblastic leukemia viral oncogene homolog 3 (ERBB3);
Vesicle-associated membrane protein 1 (synaptobrevin
1) (VAMP1);
vesicle-associated membrane protein 3 (cellubrevin) (VAMP3);
v-fos FBJ murine osteosarcoma viral oncogene homolog (FOS);
villin 2 (ezrin) (VIL2);
villin-like protein;
vimentin (VIM);
vinculin (VCL);
vitamin A responsive;
cytoskeleton related (JWA);
v-jun avian sarcoma virus 17 oncogene homolog (JUN);
v-myb avian myeloblastosis viral oncogene homolog (MYB);
voltage-dependent anion channel 1 (VDAC1);
voltage-dependent anion channel 3 (VDAC3);
von Hippel-Lindau syndrome (VHL);
v-raf murine sarcoma 3611 viral oncogene homolog 1 (ARAF1);
v-raf-1 murine leukemia viral oncogene homolog 1 (RAF1);
v-ral simian leukemia viral oncogene homolog B (ras related;
GTP binding protein) (RALB);
V-rel avian reticuloendotheliosis viral oncogene homolog A (nuclear factor of kappa light polypeptide gene enhancer in B-cells 3 (p65)) (RELA);
v-yes-1 Yamaguchi sarcoma viral related oncogene homolog (LYN);
WD repeat domain 1 (WDR1);
WD-repeat protein (HAN11);
Williams-Beuren syndrome chromosome region 1 (WBSCR1);
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome protein interacting protein (WASPIP);
X (inactive)-specific-transcript (XIST);
xeroderma pigmentosum, complementation group C (XPC);
XIAP associated factor-1;
XIB;
X-linked anhidroitic ectodermal dysplasia;
X-ray repair complementing defective repair in Chinese hamster cells 5 (double-strand-break rejoining;
Ku autoantigen, 80 kD) (XRCC5);
XRP2 protein;
yeloid differentiation primary response gene (88) (MYD88);
zeta-chain (TCR) associated protein kinase (70 kD) (ZAP70);
zinc finger protein (Hs.47371);
zinc finger protein (Hs.78765);
zinc finger protein 10 (KOX
1) (ZNF10);
zinc finger protein 136 (clone pHZ-20) (ZNF136);
zinc finger protein 140 (clone pHZ-39) (ZNF140);
zinc finger protein 143 (clone pHZ-1) (ZNF143);
zinc finger protein 148 (pHZ-52) (ZNF148);
zinc finger protein 173 (ZNF173);
zinc finger protein 198 (ZNF198);
zinc finger protein 200 (ZNF200);
zinc finger protein 207 (ZNF207);
zinc finger protein 216 (ZNF216);
zinc finger protein 217 (ZNF217);
zinc finger protein 230 (ZNF230);
Zinc finger protein 239 (ANF239);
zinc finger protein 261 (ZNF261);
zinc finger protein 262 (ANF262);
zinc finger protein 263 (ZNF263);
zinc finger protein 264 (ZNF264);
zinc finger protein 42 (myeloid-specific retinoic cid-responsive) (ZNF42);
zinc finger protein 45 (a Kruppel-associated box (KRAB) domain polypeptide) (ZNF45);
zinc finger protein 76 (expressed in testis) (ZNF76);
zinc finger protein 84 (HPF2) (ZNF84);
zinc finger protein 85 (ZNF85));
zinc finger protein 9 (ZNF9);
zinc finger protein C2H2-25 (ZNF25);
zinc finger protein clone L3-4;
zinc finger protein homologous to Zfp-36 in mouse (ZFP36);
zinc finger protein HZF4;
zinc finger'"'"'protein RIZ;
zinc finger protein, subfamily 1A, 1 (Ikaros) (LYF1);
zinc finger transcriptional regulator (GOS24);
zinc-finger helicase (hZFH);
Zn-15 related zinc finger protein (rlf);
ZNF80-linked ERV9 long terminal repeat;
ZW10 (Drosophila) homolog, centromere/kinetochore protein (ZW10); and
zyxin (ZYX);
thereby profiling gene expression in a human subject.
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Abstract
The present invention is directed to detection and measurement of gene transcripts in blood. Specifically provided is a RT-PCR analysis performed on a drop of blood for detecting, diagnosing and monitoring diseases using tissue-specific primers. The present invention also describes methods by which delineation of the sequence and/or quantitation of the expression levels of disease-associated genes allows for an immediate and accurate diagnostic/prognostic test for disease or to assess the effect of a particular treatment regimen.
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Citations
10 Claims
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1. A method of profiling gene expression in a human subject having an infectious disease, the method comprising:
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determining, for each gene of a set of genes, a level of RNA encoded by the gene in a blood sample of the subject, wherein the set comprises the genes identified as; 100 kDa coactivator;
10 kD protein (BC10);
14-3-3 epsilon;
14-3-3 protein;
15 kDa selenoprotein (SEP15);
1-phosphatidylinositol-4-phosphate 5-kinase isoform C;
23 kD highly basic protein;
2-5A-dependent RNase;
2′
-5′
oligoadenylate synthetase 2 (OAS2);
26S proteasome subunit 11;
36 kDa phosphothyrosine protein;
3-phosphoglycerate dehydrogenase (PGAD);
3-prime-phosphoadenosine 5-prime-phosphosulfate synthase 1 (PAPSS1);
5-aminoimidazole-4-carboxamide ribonucleotide transformylase;
5′
-nucleotidase;
6-phosphofructo-2-kinase/fructose-2,6-biphosphatase 4 (PFKFB4);
6-phosphofructo-2-kinase/fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase (PF2K);
71 kd heat shock cognate protein hsc70;
76 kDa membrane protein (P76);
8-oxoguanine DNA glycosylase (OGG1);
a disintegrin and metalloprotease domain 10 (ADAM10);
a disintegrin and metalloprotease domain 8 (ADAM8);
A kinase anchor protein 95 (AKAP95);
A kinase anchor protein, 149 kD (AKAP149);
Absent in melanoma 1 (AIM1);
accessory proteins BAP31/BAP29 (DXS1357E);
acetyl-Coenzyme A acyltransferase (peroxisomal 3-oxoacyl-Coenzyme A thiolase) (ACAA);
acetyl-Coenzyme A transporter (ACATN);
acidic 82 kDa protein;
acidic protein rich in leucines (SSP29);
Aconitase 2, mitochondrial (ACO2);
actin binding protein MAYVEN;
actin, beta (ACTB);
actin, gamma 1 (ACTG1);
actin-binding LIM protein (ABLIM);
Actinin, alpha 1 (ACTN1);
actinin, alpha 4 (ACTN4);
activated p21cdc42Hs kinase (ACK);
activated RNA polymerase II transcription cofactor 4 (PC4);
activating transcription factor 1 (ATF1);
activating transcription factor 2 (ATF2);
activating transcription factor 4 (tax-responsive enhancer element B67) (ATF4);
active BCR-related gene (ABR);
acyl-CoA oxidase (AOX);
acyl-Coenzyme A dehydrogenase, C-4 to C-12 straight chain (ACADM);
acyl-Coenzyme A dehydrogenase, very long chain (ACADVL);
acyloxyacyl hydrolase (neutrophil) (AOAH);
adaptin, delta (ADTD);
adaptin, gamma (ADTG);
adaptor complex sigma3B (AP3S3);
adaptor protein p150;
adducin 1 (alpha) (ADD1);
adducin 1 (alpha) (add1);
adducin 3 (gamma) (ADD3);
adenine nucleotide translocator 2 (fibroblast) (ANT2);
adenine nucleotide translocator 3 (liver) (ANT3);
adenomatous polyposis-coli protein (APC);
adenosine deaminase, RNA-specific (ADAR);
adenylate cyclase 3 (ADCY3);
adenylate cyclase 7 (ADCY7);
adenylate kinase 2 (AK2);
adenylyl cyclase-associated protein (CAP);
adipose differentiation-related protein;
adipophilin (ADFP);
ADP-ribosylation factor 1 (ARF1);
ADP-ribosylation factor 3 (ARF3);
ADP-ribosylation factor 4 (ARF4);
ADP-ribosylation factor 5 (ARF5);
ADP-ribosylation factor domain protein 1, 64 kD (ARFD1);
ADP-ribosyltransferase (NAD+;
poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase) (ADPRT);
adrenergic, beta, receptor kinase 1 (ADRBK1);
adrenoleukodystrophy-like 1 (ALDL1);
AF-17;
A-gamma-globin;
A-gamma-globin (chromosome 11 allele);
agammaglobulinaemia tyrosine kinase (ATK);
AHNAK nucleoprotein (desmoyokin) (AHNAK);
alanyl (membrane) aminopeptidase (aminopeptidase N, aminopeptidase M, microsomal aminopeptidase, CD13, p150) (ANPEP);
alcohol dehydrogenase 5 (class III), chi polypeptide (ADH5);
aldehyde dehydrogenase 1, soluble (ALDH1);
aldehyde dehydrogenase 10 (fatty aldehyde dehydrogenase) (ALDH10);
aldehyde reductase 1 (low Km aldose reductase) (ALDR1);
aldo-keto reductase family 1, member A1 (aldehyde reductase) (AKR1A1);
aldo-keto reductase family 1, member C3 (3-alpha hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase, type II) (AKR1C3);
aldo-keto reductase family 7, member A2 (aflatoxin aldehyde reductase) (AKR7A2);
aldolase A, fructose-bisphosphate (ALDOA);
aldolase C, fructose-bisphosphate (ALDOC);
alkaline phosphatase, liver/bone/kidney (ALPL);
alpha mannosidase II isozyme;
alpha thalassemia/mental retardation syndrome X-linked (ATRX);
alpha-2-macroglobulin;
alpha-2-globin;
alpha-2-macroglobulin receptor/lipoprotein receptor protein (A2MR/LRP);
alpha-polypeptide of N-acetyl-alpha-glucosaminidase (HEXA);
alpha-spectrin;
alpha-subunit of Gi2 a (GTP-binding signal transduction protein);
aminin receptor 1 (67 kD);
Ribosomal protein SA (LAMR1);
aminolevulinate, delta-, dehydratase (ALAD);
amino-terminal enhancer of split (AES);
amino-terminal enhancer of split (AES);
AMP deaminase isoform L (AMPD2);
amphiphysin (Stiff-Mann syndrome with breast cancer 128 kD autoantigen) (AMPH);
amphiphysin II;
amphiphysin-like (AMPHL);
AMY-1;
amyloid beta (A4) precursor protein-binding, family B, member 1 (Fe65) (APBB1);
amyloid beta (A4) precursor-like protein 2 (APLP2);
amyloid precursor protein (APP);
annexin I (lipocortin I) (ANX1);
annexin II;
annexin II (lipocortin II;
calpactin I, heavy polypeptide) (ANX2);
annexin IV (placental anticoagulant protein II) (ANX4);
annexin V (endonexin II) (ANX5);
annexin V (endonexin II) (ANXV);
annexin VI (p68) (ANX6);
annexin VII (synexin) (ANX7);
antigen identified by monoclonal antibodies 12E7, F21 and O13 (MIC2);
antigen identified by monoclonal antibodies 4F2, TRA1.10, TROP4, and T43 (MDU1);
anti-oxidant protein 2 (non-selenium glutathione peroxidase, acidic calcium-independent phospholipase A2) (KIAA0106);
APEX nuclease (multifunctional DNA repair enzyme) (APEX);
apoptosis inhibitor 1 (API1);
apoptosis inhibitor 4 (survivin) (API4);
apoptosis inhibitor 5 (API5);
apoptosis specific protein (ASP);
apoptotic protease activating factor (APAF1);
aquaporin 3 (AQP3);
aquaporin 9 (AQP9);
arachidonate 12-lipoxygenase (ALOX12);
arachidonate 5-lipoxygenase-activating protein (ALOX5AP);
ariadne homolog (ARI);
ariadne-2 (D. melanogaster) homolog (all-trans retinoic acid inducible RING finger) (ARI2);
ARP1 (actin-related protein 1, yeast) homolog A (centractin alpha) (ACTR1A);
ARP2 (actin-related protein 2, yeast) homolog (ACTR2);
ARP2/3 protein complex subunit 34 (ARC34);
Arp2/3 protein complex subunit p41 (ARC41);
Arp2/3 protein complex subunit p16 (ARC16);
Arp2/3 protein complex subunit p20 (ARC20);
Arp2/3 protein complex subunit p21 (ARC21);
ARP3 (actin-related protein 3, yeast) homolog (ACTR3);
arrestin, beta 2 (ARRB2);
arsA (bacterial) arsenite transporter, ATP-binding, homolog 1 (ASNA1);
aryl hydrocarbon receptor nuclear translocator-like (ARNTL);
aryl hydrocarbon receptor-interacting protein (AIP);
arylsulfatase A (ARSA);
asialoglycoprotein receptor 2 (ASGR2);
asparaginyl-tRNA synthetase (NARS);
aspartyl-tRNA synthetase (DARS);
ataxia telangiectasia mutated (includes complementation groups A, C and D) (ATM);
ataxin-2-like protein A2LP (A2LG);
ATF6;
ATP synthase (F1-ATPase) alpha subunit, mitochondrial;
ATP synthase beta subunit gene;
ATP synthase, H+ transporting, mitochondrial F0 complex, subunit b, isoform 1 (ATP5F1);
ATP synthase, H+ transporting, mitochondrial F0 complex, subunit c (subunit
9), isoform 1 (ATP5G1);
ATP synthase, H+ transporting, mitochondrial F1 complex, alpha subunit, isoform 1, cardiac muscle (ATP5A1);
ATP synthase, H+ transporting, mitochondrial F1 complex, beta polypeptide (ATP5B);
ATP synthase, H+ transporting, mitochondrial F1 complex, gamma polypeptide 1 (ATP5C1);
ATP synthase, H+ transporting, mitochondrial F1F0, subunit g (ATP5JG);
ATP/GTP-binding protein (HEAB);
ATPase, Ca++ transporting, ubiquitous (ATP2A3);
ATPase, H+ transporting, lysosomal (vacuolar proton pump) 21 kD (ATP6F);
ATPase, H+ transporting, lysosomal (vacuolar proton pump) 31 kD (ATP6E);
ATPase, H+ transporting, lysosomal (vacuolar proton pump) 42 kD;
Vacuolar proton-ATPase, subunit C;
V-ATPase, subunit C (ATP6D);
ATPase, H+ transporting, lysosomal (vacuolar proton pump), alpha polypeptide, 70 kD, isoform 1 (ATP6A1);
ATPase, H+ transporting, lysosomal (vacuolar proton pump), beta polypeptide, 56/58 kD, isoform 2 (ATP6B2);
ATPase, H+ transporting, lysosomal (vacuolar proton pump), member J (ATP6J);
ATPase, H+ transporting, lysosomal (vacuolar proton pump), subunit 1 (ATP6S1);
ATP-binding cassette 50 (TNF-alpha stimulated) (ABC50);
ATP-binding cassette protein M-ABC1 (mitochondrial);
ATP-dependent RNA helicase;
atrial natriuretic factor (ANF);
autoantigen (Hs.75528);
autoantigen (Hs.75682);
autoantigen La/SS-B;
axin (AXIN1);
axonemal dynein heavy chain (DNAH17);
basement membrane-induced gene (ICB1);
basic leucine zipper nuclear factor 1 (JEM-1) (BLZF1);
basic transcription factor 3 (BTF3);
basigin (BSG);
BC-2;
B-cell CLL/lymphoma 6 (zinc finger protein
51) (BCL6);
B-cell translocation gene 1, anti-proliferative (BTG);
BCL2/adenovirus E1B 19 kD-interacting protein 2 (BNIP2);
BCL2/adenovirus E1B 19 kD-interacting protein 3-like (BNIP3L);
beclin 1 (coiled-coil, myosin-like BCL2-interacting protein) (BECN1);
beta-1,2-N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase II (MGAT2);
beta-2-microglobulin (B2M);
beta-hexosaminidase alpha chain (HEXA);
beta-tubulin;
BING4;
biphenyl hydrolase-like (serine hydrolase) (BPHL);
bone marrow stromal cell antigen 1 (BST1);
box-dependent myc-interacting protein isoform BIN1-10 (BIN1);
brain my047 protein;
branched chain keto acid dehydrogenase E1, alpha polypeptide (maple syrup urine disease) (BCKDHA);
BRCA1 associated protein-1 (ubiquitin carboxy-terminal hydrolase) (BAP1);
breakpoint cluster region protein, uterine leiomyoma, 1;
barrier to autointegration factor (BCRP1);
breakpoint cluster region protein, uterine leiomyoma, 2 (BCRP2);
bromodomain-containing protein, 140 kD (peregrin) (BR140);
Bruton'"'"'s agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase (Btk);
Bruton'"'"'s tyrosine kinase (BTK);
BS4;
BTG2 (BTG2);
BTK region clone ftp;
BTK region clone ftp-3;
BUB3 (budding uninhibited by benzimidazoles 3, yeast) homolog (BUB3);
butyrate response factor 1 (EGF-response factor
1) (BRF1);
butyrophilin (BTF1);
butyrophilin like receptor;
CAG repeat containing (CTG4A);
CAGH32;
calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase (CaM kinase) II gamma (CAMK2G);
calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase kinase (KIAA0787);
calmodulin 1 (phosphorylase kinase, delta) (CALM1);
calnexin (CANX);
calpain, large polypeptide L1 (CAPN1);
calpain, large polypeptide L2 (CANP2);
calpain, small polypeptide (CAPN4);
calpastatin (CAST);
Calponin 2;
calponin 2 (CNN2);
calumenin (CALU);
cAMP response element-binding protein CRE-Bpa (H_GS165L15.1);
cAMP-dependent protein kinase type II (Ht31);
canicular multispecific organic anion transporter (CMOAT2);
capping protein (actin filament) muscle Z-line, alpha 1 (CAPZA1);
capping protein (actin filament) muscle Z-line, alpha 2 (CAPZA2);
capping protein (actin filament) muscle Z-line, beta (CAPZB);
capping protein (actin filament), gelsolin-like (CAPG);
carbamoyl-phosphate synthetase 2, aspartate transcarbamylase, and dihydroorotase (CAD);
carbonic anhydrase V, mitochondrial (CA5);
carboxypeptidase D (CPD);
cardiac beta-myosin heavy chain;
carnitine/acylcarnitine translocase (CACT);
Cas-Br-M (murine) ecotropic retroviral transforming sequence (cbl);
casein kinase 1, alpha 1 (CSNK1A1);
casein kinase 2, alpha 1 polypeptide (CSNK2A1);
casein kinase I gamma 3L (CSNK1G3L);
CASP8 and FADD-like apoptosis regulator (CFLAR);
caspase 1, apoptosis-related cysteine protease (interleukin 1, beta, convertase) (CASP1);
caspase 10, apoptosis-related cysteine protease (CASP10);
caspase 3, apoptosis-related cysteine protease (CASP3);
caspase 4, apoptosis-related cysteine protease (CASP4);
caspase 5, apoptosis-related cysteine protease (CASP5);
caspase 8, apoptosis-related cysteine protease (CASP8);
caspase 9, apoptosis-related cysteine protease (CASP9);
catalase (CAT);
catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT);
catenin (cadherin-associated protein), alpha 1 (102 kD) (CTNNA1);
cathelicidin antimicrobial peptide (CAMP);
cathepsin B (CTSB);
cathepsin C(CTSC);
cathepsin D (lysosomal aspartyl protease) (CTSD);
cathepsin E (CTSE);
cathepsin G (CTSG);
cathepsin S (CTSS);
cathepsin W (lymphopain) (CTSW);
CCAAT/enhancer binding protein (C/EBP), alpha (CEBPA);
CCAAT/enhancer binding protein (C/EBP), delta (CEBPB);
CCAAT-box-binding transcription factor (CBF2);
CD14 antigen (CD14);
CD1C antigen, c polypeptide (CD1C);
CD2 antigen (cytoplasmic tail)-binding protein 2 (CD2BP2);
CD2 antigen (p50), sheep red blood cell receptor (CD2);
CD2 cytoplasmic tail-binding protein 1 (CD2BP1);
CD20 antigen (CD20);
CD20 receptor (S7);
CD22 antigen (CD22);
CD24 signal transducer;
CD33 antigen (gp67) (CD33);
CD33 antigen-like 2;
CD36 antigen (collagen type I receptor, thrombospondin receptor) (CD36);
CD37 antigen (CD37);
CD38 alt;
CD39 antigen (CD39);
CD3D antigen, delta polypeptide (TiT3 complex) (CD3D);
CD3E antigen, epsilon polypeptide (TiT3 complex) (CD3E);
CD3G antigen, gamma polypeptide (TiT3 complex) (CD3G);
CD3Z antigen, zeta polypeptide (TiT3 complex) (CD3Z);
CD3-zeta (clone pBS NK1);
CD4 antigen (p55) (CD4);
CD44 antigen (homing function and Indian blood group system (CD44);
CD48 antigen (B-cell membrane protein) (CD48);
CD53 antigen (CD53);
CD63 antigen (melanoma 1 antigen) (CD63);
CD68 antigen (CD68);
CD74 antigen (invariant polypeptide of major histocompatibility complex, class II antigen-associated) (CD74);
CD79A antigen (immunoglobulin-associated alpha) (CD79A);
CD79B antigen (immunoglobulin-associated beta) (CD79B);
CD8 antigen, alpha polypeptide (p32) (CD8A);
CD8 antigen, beta polypeptide 1 (p37) (CD8B1);
CD81 antigen (target of antiproliferative antibody 1 (CD81);
CD84 antigen (leukocyte antigen) (CD84);
CD86 antigen;
CD9 antigen (p24) (CD9);
CD97 antigen (CD97);
CDC23 (cell division cycle 23, yeast, homolog) (CDC23);
CDC37 homolog;
Cdc42 effector protein 3 (CEP3);
CDC-like kinase (CLK);
CDC-like kinase 2 (CLK2);
CDW52 antigen (CAMPATH-1 antigen) (CDW52);
cell cycle progression restoration 8 protein (CPR8);
cell division cycle 10 (homologous to CDC10 of S. cerevisiae) (CDC10);
cell division cycle 20, S. cerevisiae homolog (CDC20);
cell division cycle 25B (CDC25B);
cell division cycle 42 (GTP-binding protein, 25 kD) (CDC42);
centromere protein B (80 kD) (CENPB);
cep250 centrosome associated protein;
ceroid-lipofuscinosis, neuronal 2, late infantile (Jansky-Bielschowsky disease) (CLN2);
CGI-19 protein;
chaperonin containing TCP1, subunit 3 (gamma) (CCT3);
chaperonin containing TCP1, subunit 4 (delta) (CCT4);
chaperonin containing TCP1, subunit 6A (zeta
1) (CCT6A);
chaperonin containing TCP1, subunit 7 (eta) (CCT7);
Chediak-Higashi syndrome 1 (CHS1);
chemokine (C-C motif) receptor 2 (CCR2);
chemokine (C-C motif) receptor 7 (CCR7);
chemokine (C-X3-C) receptor 1 (CX3CR1);
chemokine (C-X-C motif), receptor 4 (fusin) (CXCR4);
chitinase 3-like 1 (cartilage glycoprotein-39) (CHI3L1);
chitinase 3-like 2 (CHI3L2);
chloride channel 6 (CLCN6);
Chloride intracellular channel 1 (CLIC1);
chondroitin sulfate proteoglycan 2 (versican) (CSPG2);
chondroitin sulfate proteoglycan core protein;
chromodomain helicase DNA binding protein 1 (CHD1);
chromodomain helicase DNA binding protein 1-like (CHD1L);
chromodomain helicase DNA binding protein 2 (CHD2);
chromodomain helicase DNA binding protein 3 (CHD3);
chromodomain helicase DNA binding protein 4 (CHD4);
chromosome 1 open reading frame 7 (C1ORF7);
chromosome 1 specific transcript KIAA0493;
chromosome 17 open reading frame 1B (C17ORF1B);
chromosome 4 open reading frame 1 (C4ORF1);
chromosome condensation 1-like (CHC1L);
chromosome X open reading frame 5 (CXORF5);
chromosome-associated polypeptide C(CAP-C);
cig42;
cig5;
citrate synthase (CS);
class I major histocompatibility antigen (HLA-Cw3);
clathrin assembly protein lymphoid myeloid leukemia (CALM);
clathrin heavy chain;
clathrin, heavy polypeptide-like 2 (CLTCL2);
clathrin-associated/assembly/adaptor protein, medium 1 (CLAPM1);
cleavage stimulation factor, 3′
pre-RNA, subunit 3, 77 kD (CSTF3);
clk3;
clone 23815 (Hs.82845);
clone 24592 mRNA sequence;
Clq/MBUSPA receptor ClqR(p);
clusterin (complement lysis inhibitor, SP-40,40, sulfated glycoprotein 2, testosterone-repressed prostate message 2, apolipoprotein J) (CLU);
CMP-sialic acid transporter (CMPST);
CMRF35;
c-myc oncogene containing coxIII;
coagulation factor II (thrombin) receptor (F2R);
coagulation factor V (proaccelerin, labile factor) (F5);
coagulation factor XIII a subunit;
coagulation factor XIII, A1 polypeptide (F13A1);
coated vesicle membrane protein (RNP24);
coatomer protein complex, subunit alpha (COPA);
Cofilin 1 (non-muscle) (CFL1);
cold inducible RNA-binding protein (CIRBP);
cold shock domain protein A (CSDA);
collagen, type IX, alpha 2 (COL9A2);
colony stimulating factor 1 receptor, formerly McDonough feline sarcoma viral (v-fms) oncogene homolog (CSF1R);
colony stimulating factor 2 receptor, beta, low-affinity (granulocyte-macrophage) (CSF2RB);
colony stimulating factor 3 receptor (granulocyte) (CSF3R);
complement component 5 receptor 1 (C5a ligand) (C5R1);
conserved gene amplified in osteosarcoma (OS4);
COP9 (constitutive photomorphogenic, Arabidopsis, homolog) subunit 3 (COPS3);
COP9 homolog (HCOP9);
COPII protein, homolog of s. cerevisiae SEC23p (SEC23A);
copine I (CPNE1);
coproporphyrinogen oxidase (coproporphyria, harderoporphyria) (CPO);
core-binding factor, beta subunit (CBFB);
coronin;
cot (cancer Osaka thyroid) oncogene (COT);
cryptochrome 1 (photolyase-like) (CRY1);
CTD (carboxy-terminal domain, RNA polymerase II, polypeptide A) phosphatase, subunit 1 (CTDP1);
C-terminal binding protein 1 (CTBP1);
C-terminal binding protein 2 (CTBP2);
CUG triplet repeat, RNA-binding protein 1 (CUGBP1);
cullin 1 (CUL1);
cullin 3 (CUL3);
cut (Drosophila)-like 1 (CCAAT displacement protein) (CUTL1);
cyclin D2 (CCND2);
cyclin D3 (CCND3);
cyclin G1 (CNNG1);
cyclin I;
cyclin T2 (CNNT2);
cyclin-dependent kinase 2 (CDK2);
cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor (p27Kip1);
cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 1A (p21, Cip1) (CDKN1A);
cystatin B (stefin B) (CSTB);
cysteine and glycine-rich protein 3 (cardiac LIM protein) (CSRP3);
cytidine deaminase (CDA);
cytochrome b(-245) beta chain N-terminal region (X-linked granulomatous disease gene);
cytochrome b-245, beta polypeptide (chronic granulomatous disease) (CYBB);
cytochrome c oxidase subunit IV (COX4);
cytochrome c oxidase subunit Vb (COX5B);
cytochrome c oxidase subunit VII-related protein (COX7RP);
cytokine suppressive anti-inflammatory drug binding protein 1 (p38 MAP kinase) (CSBP1);
Cytoplasmic antiproteinase=38 kda intracellular serine proteinase inhibitor;
cytotoxic granule-associated RNA-binding protein p40-TIA-1;
D123 (D123);
D2-2;
D38;
damage-specific DNA binding protein 1 (127 kD) (DDB1);
DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box binding protein 1 (DDXBP1);
DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide (72 KD) (P72);
DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide 1 (DDX1);
DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide 15 (DDX15);
DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide 16 (DDX16);
DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide 3 (DDX3);
DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide 5 (RNA helicase, 68 kD) (DDX5);
DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide 6 (RNA helicase, 54 kD) (DDX6);
DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide 8 (RNA helicase, 54 kD) (DDX8);
DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide 9 (RNA helicase A, nuclear DNA helicase II;
leukophysin) (DDX9);
DEAD/H (Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp/His) box polypeptide, Y chromosome (DBY);
Death associated protein 3 (DAP3);
death effector domain-containing protein (DEDD);
death-associated protein 6 (DAXX);
dedicator of cyto-kinesis 2 (DOCK2);
defender against cell death 1 (DAD1);
Defensin, alpha 1, myeloid-related sequence (DEFA1);
DEK gene (D6S231E);
delta sleep inducing peptide, immunoreactor (DSIPI);
dendritic cell protein (GA17);
deoxycytidine kinase (DCK);
deoxyribonuclease II, lysosomal (DNASE2);
DGS-I;
diacylglycerol kinase;
diacylglycerol kinase alpha (DAGK1) (clone
24);
diaphanous (Drosophila, homolog) 1 (DIAPH1);
diaphorase (NADH) (cytochrome b-5 reductase) (DIA1);
differentiated Embryo Chondrocyte expressed gene 1 (DEC1);
differentiation antigen CD20;
DiGeorge syndrome critical region gene 2 (DGCR2);
dihydrolipoamide dehydrogenase (E3 component of pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, 2-oxo-glutarate complex, branched chain keto acid dehydrogenase complex) (DLD);
dihydrolipoamide S-acetyltransferase (E2 component of pyruvate dehydrogenase complex) (DLAT);
dihydropyrimidinase-like 2 (DPYSL2);
dinG gene;
diptheria toxin resistance protein required for diphthamide biosynthesis (Saccharomyces)-like 2 (DPH2L2);
DJ-1 protein;
Dmx-like 1 (DMXL1);
DNA (cytosine-5-)-methyltransferase 1 (DNMT1);
DNA fragmentation factor, 40 kD, beta subunit (DFFB);
DNA fragmentation factor, 45 kD, alpha subunit (DFFA);
DNA mismatch repair protein (hMLH1);
DNA segment on chromosome X (unique) 648 expressed sequence;
DNA segment, single copy probe LNS-CAI/LNS-CAII (deleted in polyposis (D5S346);
DnaJ protein;
docking protein 2, 56 kD (DOK2);
dolichyl-diphosphooligosaccharide-protein glycosyltransferase (DDOST);
dolichyl-phosphate mannosyltransferase polypeptide 1, catalytic subunit (DPM1);
down-regulated by activation (immunoglobulin superfamily) (DORA);
D-type cyclin-interacting protein 1 (DIP1);
dual specificity phosphatase 1 (DUSP1);
dual specificity phosphatase 11 (RNA/RNP complex 1-interacting) (dusp11);
dual specificity phosphatase 3 (vaccinia virus phosphatase VH1-related) (DUSP3);
dual specificity phosphatase 6 (DUSP6);
dynactin 1 (p150, Glued (Drosophila) homolog) (DYTN1);
dynamin 2 (DNM2);
dynein, cytoplasmic, light intermediate polypeptide 2 (DNCLI2);
dyskeratosis congenita 1, dyskerin (DKC1);
dystonia 1, torsion (autosomal dominant) (DYT1);
dystrobrevin, beta (DTNB);
dystrophia myotonica-containing WD repeat motif (DMWD);
dystrophia myotonica-protein kinase (DMPK);
E1B-55 kDa-associated protein;
E2F transcription factor 3 (E2F3);
E2F transcription factor 4, p107/p130-binding (E2F4);
E2F transcription factor 5, p130-binding (E2F5);
E74-like factor 1 (ets domain transcription factor) (ELF1);
E74-like factor 4 (ets domain transcription factor) (ELF4);
early development regulator 2 (homolog of polyhomeotic
2) (EDR2);
EBV induced G-protein coupled receptor (EBI2);
ecotropic viral integration site 2B (EVI2B);
ectin, galactoside-binding, soluble, 1 (galectin
1) (LGALS1);
EGF-like-domain, multiple 4 (EGFL4);
eIF-2-associated p67 homolog;
elav-type RNA-binding protein (ETR-3);
electron-transfer-flavoprotein, alpha polypeptide (glutaric aciduria II) (ETFA);
ELK3, ETS-domain protein (SRF accessory protein
2) (ELK3);
elongation factor 1-beta;
elongation factor Ts (mitochondrial protein);
elongation factor Tu-nuclear encoded mitochondrial;
eMDC II protein;
ems1 sequence (mammary tumor and squamous cell carcinoma-associated (p80/85 src substrate) (EMS1);
endogenous retroviral element HC2;
endosulfine alpha (ENSA);
endothelial differentiation, sphingolipid G-protein-coupled receptor, 1 (EDG1);
endothelial monocyte-activating polypeptide (EMAPII);
enolase 1, (alpha) (ENO1);
enolase 2, (gamma, neuronal) (ENO2);
enolase-alpha;
enoyl Coenzyme A hydratase 1, peroxisomal (ECH1);
enoyl Coenzyme A hydratase, short chain, 1, mitochondrial (ECHS1);
epidermal growth factor receptor pathway substrate 15 (EPS15);
epithelial membrane protein 3 (EM[P3);
Epoxide hydrolase 1, microsomal (xenobiotic) (EPHX1);
ERF-2;
ERp28 protein;
erythrocyte membrane protein;
erythroleukemic cells K562;
EST (Hs.189509);
estrogen receptor-related protein (hERRa1);
ET binding factor 1 (SBF1);
ets domain protein ERF;
eukaryotic translation elongation factor 1 alpha 1 (EEF1A1);
eukaryotic translation elongation factor 1 beta 2 (EEF1B2);
eukaryotic translation elongation factor 1 delta (guanine nucleotide exchange protein) (EEF1D);
eukaryotic translation elongation factor 1 gamma (EEF1G);
eukaryotic translation elongation factor 2 (EEF2);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2, subunit 1 (alpha, 35 kD) (EIF2S1);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2, subunit 2 (beta, 38 kD) (EIF2S2);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2, subunit 3 (gamma, 52 kD) (EIF2S3);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3, subunit 10 (theta, 150/170 kD) (EIF3S10);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3, subunit 2 (beta, 36 kD) (EIF3S2);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3, subunit 3 (gamma, 40 kD) (EIF3S3);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3, subunit 4 (delta, 44 kD) (EIF3S4);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3, subunit 6 (48 kD) (EIF3S6);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3, subunit 6 (EIF3S6);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3, subunit 7 (zeta, 66/67 kD) (EIF3S7);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3, subunit 8, 110 KD (EIF3S8);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4 gamma, 1 (EIF4G);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4 gamma, 1 (EIF4G1);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4 gamma, 2 (EIF4G2);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4 gamma, 2 (EIFG2);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4A, isoform 1 (EIF4A1);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4A, isoform 2 (EIF4A2);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4B (EIF4B);
Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4E binding protein 2 (EIF4EBP2);
eukaryotic translation initiation factor 5 (EIF5);
eukaryotic translation termination factor 1 (ETF1);
EV12 protein;
Ewing sarcoma breakpoint region 1 (EWSR1);
EWS/FLI1 activated transcript 2 homolog (EAT-2);
EWS-E1A-F chimeric protein;
excision repair cross-complementing rodent repair deficiency, complementation group 1 (includes overlapping antisense sequence) (ERCC1);
excision repair cross-complementing rodent repair deficiency, complementation group 5 (xeroderma pigmentosum, complementation group G (Cockayne syndrome)) (ERCC5);
exostoses (multiple)-like 3 (EXTL3);
F11;
F1-ATPase beta subunit (F-1 beta);
Fanconi anaemia group A;
Fanconi anemia, complementation group A (FANCA);
far upstream element (FUSE) binding protein 1 (FUBP1);
farnesyl diphosphate synthase (farnesyl pyrophosphate synthetase, dimethylallyltranstransferase, geranyltranstransferase) (FDPS);
farnesyl-diphosphate farnesyltransferase 1 (FDFT1);
farnesyltransferase, CAAX box, beta (FNTB);
Fas-ligand associated factor 1;
fatty-acid-Coenzyme A ligase, long-chain 1 (FACL1);
Fc fragment of IgA, receptor for (FCAR);
Fc fragment of IgE, high affinity I, receptor for;
gamma polypeptide (FCER1G);
Fc fragment of IgE, low affinity II, receptor for (CD23A) (FCER2);
Fc fragment of IgG, low affinity IIa, receptor for (CD32);
Fc fragment of IgG, low affinity IIa, receptor for (CD32) (FCGR2A);
Fc fragment of IgG, low affinity IIIa, receptor for (CD16) (FCGR3A);
Fc fragment of IgG, receptor, transporter, alpha (FCGRT);
fc-fgr;
Fc-gamma-receptor IIIB (FCGR3B);
feline sarcoma (Snyder-Theilen) viral (v-fes)/Fujinami avian sarcoma (PRCII) viral (v-fps) oncogene homolog (FES) c-fes/fps);
female sterile homeotic-related gene 1 (mouse homolog) (FSRG1);
ferritin L-chain;
ferritin, heavy polypeptide 1 (FTH1);
fetal Alzheimer antigen (FALZ);
fetal Ig heavy chain variable region;
fibrillarin (FBL);
fibrinogen-like protein 2 (T49);
ficolin (collagen/fibrinogen domain-containing) 1 (FCN1);
filamin A, alpha (actin-binding protein-280) (FLNA);
filamin B, beta (actin-binding protein-278) (FLNB);
Finkel-Biskis-Reilly murine sarcoma virus (FBR-MuSV) ubiquitously expressed (fox derived);
ribosomal protein S30 (FAU);
FK-506 binding protein;
FK506-binding protein 1A (12 kD) (FKBP1A);
FK506-binding protein 1B (12.6 kD) (FKBP1B);
FK506-binding protein 5 (FKBP5);
Flightless I (Drosophila) homolog (FLII);
FLN29 (FLN29);
flotillin 2 (FLOT2);
folate receptor 2 (fetal) (FOLR2);
forkhead (Drosophila) homolog (rhabdomyosarcoma) like 1 (FKHRL1);
Formyl peptide receptor 1 (FPR1);
formyl peptide receptor-like 1 (FPRL1);
fragile X mental retardation 1 (FMR1);
fragile X mental retardation, autosomal homolog 1 (FXR1);
Friend leukemia virus integration 1 (FLI1);
fructose-bisphosphatase 1 (FBP1);
FSHD-associated repeat DNA, proximal region;
fucose-1-phosphate guanylyltransferase (FPGT);
full length insert cDNA clone ZA78A09;
full length insert cDNA YP07G10;
fumarate hydratase (FH);
FYN-binding protein (FYB-120/130) (FYB);
G protein beta subunit-like protein 12.3;
G protein-coupled receptor kinase 6 (GPRK6);
G1 to S phase transition 1 (GSPT1);
GA-binding protein transcription factor, beta subunit 2 (47 kD) (GABPB2);
galactose-1-phosphate uridylyltransferase (GALT);
galactosidase, beta 1 (GLB1);
galectin-9 isoform;
gamma2-adaptin (G2AD);
gamma-actin;
gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) B receptor 1 (GABBR1);
GATA-binding protein 2 (GATA2);
GATA-binding protein 3 (GATA3);
GCN5 (general control of amino-acid synthesis, yeast, homolog)-like 1 (GCN5L1);
GDP dissociation inhibitor 1 (GDI1);
GDP dissociation inhibitor 2 (GCI2);
GDS-related protein (HKE1.5);
gelsolin (amyloidosis, Finnish type) (GSN);
general transcription factor II, I (GTF2I);
general transcription factor II, i, pseudogene 1 (GTF2IP1);
general transcription factor IIF, polypeptide 1 (74 kD subunit) (GTF2F1);
general transcription factor IIH, polypeptide 3 (34 kD subunit) (GTF2H3);
general transcription factor IIH, polypeptide 4 (52 kD subunit) (GTF2H4);
general transcription factor IIIA (GTF3A);
general transcription factor IIIC, polypeptide 1 (alpha subunit, 220 kD) (GTF3C1);
general transcription factor IIIC, polypeptide 2 (beta subunit, 110 kD) (GTF3C2);
germline immunoglobulin heavy chain (IGHV@);
germline immunoglobulin heavy chain, variable region;
germline immunoglobulin heavy chain, variable region, (21-2);
GLE1 (yeast homolog)-like, RNA export mediator (GLE1L);
glia maturation factor, beta (GMFB);
glioma-associated oncogene homolog (zinc finger protein) (GLI);
globin, alpha 2;
glucocorticoid receptor (GRL);
glucos phosphate isomerase (CONTAINS LARGE REPEAT);
glucosamine (N-acetyl)-6-sulfatase (Sanfilippo disease IIID) (GNS);
glucose transporter-like protein-III (GLUT3);
glucosidase, alpha;
acid (Pompe disease, glycogen storage disease type II) (GAA);
glucosidase, beta;
acid (includes glucosylceramidase) (GBA);
glutamate dehydrogenase 1 (GLUD1);
glutamate-ammonia ligase (glutamine synthase) (GLUL);
glutamate-cysteine ligase (gamma-glutamylcysteine synthetase), catalytic (72.8 kD) (GLCLC);
glutamine cyclotransferase;
glutamine-fructose-6-phosphate transaminase 1 (GFPT1);
glutaminyl-tRNA synthetase;
glutaminyl-tRNA synthetase (QARS);
glutamyl-prolyl-tRNA synthetase (EPRS);
glutathione peroxidase 1 (GPX1);
glutathione peroxidase 4 (phospholipid hydroperoxidase) (GPX4);
glutathione S-transferase pi (GSTP1);
glutathione S-transferase subunit 13 homolog;
glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase (GAPD);
glycogenin (GYG);
glycophorin C (Gerbich blood group) (GYPC);
glycoprotein M6B (GPM6B);
glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS);
glyoxalase I (lactoyl glutathione lyase) (GLYI);
golgi autoantigen, golgin subfamily a, 1 (GOLGA1);
golgi autoantigen, golgin subfamily a, 4 (GOLGA4);
golgi autoantigen, golgin subfamily b, macrogolgin (with transmembrane signal), 1 (GOLGB1);
gp25L2 protein;
grancalcin;
granulin (GRN);
Granulysin (NKG5);
granzyme A (granzyme 1, cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated serine esterase
3) (GZMA);
GRB2-related adaptor protein (GRAP);
Grb2-related adaptor protein 2 (GRAP2);
GRO1 oncogene (melanoma growth stimulating activity, alpha) (GRO1);
growth arrest and DNA-damage-inducible gene (GADD153);
growth arrest-specific 7 (GAS7);
growth factor receptor-bound protein 2 (GRB2);
GS1 (protein of unknown function);
GS3955;
GTP binding protein 1 (GTPBP1);
GTPase activating protein-like (GAPL);
Gu protein (GURDB);
guanine nucleotide binding protein (G protein), alpha inhibiting activity polypeptide 2 (GNAI2);
guanine nucleotide binding protein (G protein), alpha inhibiting activity polypeptide 3 (GNAI3);
guanine nucleotide binding protein (G protein), alpha stimulating activity polypeptide 1 (GNAS1);
guanine nucleotide binding protein (G protein), alpha transducing activity polypeptide 2 (GNAT2);
guanine nucleotide binding protein (G protein), beta 5 (GNB5);
guanine nucleotide binding protein (G protein), beta polypeptide 1 (GNB1);
guanine nucleotide binding protein (G protein), q polypeptide (GNAQ);
guanine nucleotide binding protein-like 1 (GNL1);
guanine nucleotide exchange factor;
guanine nucleotide regulatory factor (LFP40);
GUANINE-MONOPHOSPHATE SYNTHETASE (GMPS);
guanosine-diphosphatase like protein;
guanylate binding protein 1, interferon-inducible, 67 kD (GBP1);
guanylate binding protein 2, interferon-inducible (GBP2);
H2A histone family, member C(H2AFC);
H2A histone family, member Y (H2AY);
H2B histone family, member L (H2BFL);
h2-calponin;
H-2K binding factor-2;
H3 histone family, member K (H3FK);
H3 histone, family 3A (H3F3A);
H3 histone, family 3B (H3.3B) (H3F3B);
hbc647;
heat shock 27 kD protein 1 (HSPB1);
heat shock 40 kD protein 1 (HSPF1);
heat shock 60 kD protein 1 (chaperonin) (HSPD1);
heat shock 70 kD protein 1 (HSPA1A);
heat shock 70 kD protein 5 (glucose-regulated protein, 78 kD) (HSPA5);
heat shock 70 kD protein 6 (HSP70B′
) (HSPA6);
heat shock 70 kD protein 9B (mortalin-2) (HSPA9B);
heat shock factor binding protein 1 (HSBP1);
heat shock protein 90;
heat shock protein, DNAJ-like 2 (HSJ2);
Hect (homologous to the E6-AP (UBE3A) carboxyl terminus) domain and RCC1 (CHC1)-like domain (RLD) 1 (HERC1);
hect domain and RLD 2 (HERC2);
helicase-like protein (HLP);
helix-loop-helix protein HE47 (E2A);
hematopoietic cell-specific Lyn substrate 1 (HCLS1);
heme oxygenase (decycling) 1 (HMOX1);
hemoglobin beta (beta globin);
hemoglobin, alpha 1 (HBA1);
hemoglobin, beta (HBB);
emokine (C-X-C motif), receptor 4 (fusin) (CXCR4);
hemopoietic cell kinase (HCK);
hepatitis C-associated microtubular aggregate protein p44;
hepatoma-derived growth factor;
Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome (HPS);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein (C1/C2) (HNRPC);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein A/B (HNRPAB);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein A1 (HNRPA1);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein A2/B1 (HNRPA2B1);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein D (hnRNP D);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein D-like (HNRPDL);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein F (HNRPF);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein G (HNRPG);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein H1 (H) (HNRPH1);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein K (HNRPK);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein R (HNRPR);
heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein U (scaffold attachment factor A) (HNRPU);
hexokinase 1 (HK1);
hexokinase 2 (HK2);
hexokinase 3 (HK3);
hexosaminidase A (alpha polypeptide) (HEXA;
HGMP07I gene for olfactory receptor;
High density lipoprotein binding protein (HDLBP);
high-mobility group (nonhistone chromosomal) protein 1 (HMG1);
High-mobility group (nonhistone chromosomal) protein 17 (HMG17);
high-mobility group (nonhistone chromosomal) protein 2 (HMG2);
high-mobility group (nonhistone chromosomal) protein isoforms I and Y;
histidine ammonia-lyase (HAL);
histidyl-tRNA synthetase (HARS);
histocompatibility antigen (HLA-Cw3), class I;
histone deacetylase 1 (HDAC);
histone deacetylase 1 (HDAC1);
histone deacetylase 5 (NY-CO-9);
HK2 gene for hexokinase II;
HL9 monocyte inhibitory receptor precursor;
HLA class I heavy chain (HLA-Cw*1701);
HLA class I locus C heavy chain;
HLA class II SB 4-beta chain;
HLA class III region containing NOTCH4 gene;
HLA-A;
HLA-A*7402;
HLA-A11;
HLA-B;
HLA-B associated transcript-1 (D6S81E);
HLA-B associated transcript-2 (D6S51E);
HLA-B*1529;
HLA-Bw72 antigen;
HLA-C gene (HLA-Cw*0701 allele);
HLA-Cw*0701;
HLA-Cw*0801;
HLA-Cw*1203;
HLA-DR alpha-chain;
HLA-F (leukocyte antigen F);
HMG box containing protein 1;
Hmob33;
HMT1 (hnRNP methyltransferase, S. cerevisiae)-like 1 (HRMT1L1);
homeodomain-interacting protein kinase 3 (HIPK3);
homolog of Drosophila past (PAST);
homolog of yeast (S. cerevisiae) ufd2 (UFD2);
HPV16 E1 protein binding protein;
HRIHFB2157;
hsc70 gene for 71 kd heat shock cognate protein;
HSPC012;
HSPC021;
HsPex13p;
htra2-beta-2;
HU-K4;
hunc18b2;
HUNKI;
huntingtin-interacting protein HYPA/FBP11 (HYPA);
hVps41p (HVPS41);
hydroxyacyl-Coenzyme A dehydrogenase/3-ketoacyl-Coenzyme A thiolase/enoyl-Coenzyme A hydratase (trifunctional protein), alpha subunit (HADHA);
hydroxyacyl-Coenzyme A dehydrogenase/3-ketoacyl-Coenzyme A thiolase/enoyl-Coenzyme A hydratase (trifunctional protein), beta subunit (HADHB);
hydroxysteroid (17-beta) dehydrogenase 1 (HSD17B1);
hypoxia-inducible factor 1, alpha subunit (basic helix-loop-helix transcription factor) (HIF1A);
Ia-associated invariant gamma-chain (clones lambda-y (1,2,3));
iduronate 2-sulfatase (Hunter syndrome) (IDS);
Ig heavy chain variable region;
Ig heavy chain variable region (VH4DJ) (clone T14.4);
Ig heavy chain variable region (VH4DJ) (clone T22.18);
Ig J chain;
Ig kappa;
IG kappa light chain variable region A20;
Ig lambda light chain variable region (26-34ITIIIF120);
Ig mu-chain VDJ4-region;
Ig rearranged anti-myelin kappa-chain (V-J4-region, hybridoma AE6-5);
Ig rearranged H-chain mRNA V-region;
IgG Fc binding protein (FC(GAMMA)BP);
IgG heavy chain variable region (vH26);
IgM heavy chain (C mu, membrane exons);
IkB kinase-beta (IKK-beta);
IL-1 receptor type II;
IL2-inducible T-cell kinase (ITK);
immediate early protein (ETR101);
immunoglobulin light chain (lambda);
Immunoglobulin (CD79A) binding protein 1 (IGBP1);
immunoglobulin G Fc receptor IIIB;
immunoglobulin gamma 3 (Gm marker) (IGHG3);
immunoglobulin heavy chain (VI-3B);
immunoglobulin heavy chain J region;
immunoglobulin heavy chain J region, B1 haplotype;
immunoglobulin heavy chain variable region (IGH) (clone 21u-48);
immunoglobulin heavy chain variable region (IGH) (clone 23u-1);
immunoglobulin heavy chain variable region V3-43 (IGHV@);
immunoglobulin heavy chain variable region V3-7 (IGHV@);
immunoglobulin IgH heavy chain Fd fragment;
immunoglobulin kappa light chain;
immunoglobulin kappa light chain V-segment A27;
immunoglobulin light chain;
immunoglobulin light chain variable region (lambda IIIb subgroup) from IgM rheumatoid factor;
immunoglobulin M heavy chain V region=anti-lipid A antibody;
immunoglobulin mu (IGHM);
immunoglobulin mu binding protein 2 (IGHMBP2);
immunoglobulin superfamily, member 2 (IGSF2);
imogen 38 (IMOGEN38);
IMP (inosine monophosphate) dehydrogenase 1 (IMPDH1);
IMP (inosine monophosphate) dehydrogenase 2 (IMPDH2);
inc finger protein 151 (pHZ-67) (ZNF151);
inc finger protein, C2H2, rapidly turned over (ZNF20);
inducible poly(A)-binding protein (IPABP);
inducible protein (Hs.80313);
inhibitor of DNA binding 2, dominant negative helix-loop-helix protein (ID2);
inhibitor of kappa light polypeptide gene enhancer in B-cells, kinase complex-associated protein (IKBKAP);
inositol 1,3,4-trisphosphate 5/6-kinase;
inositol 1,4,5 trisphosphate receptor type 1 (ITPR1);
inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate 3-kinase B (ITPKB);
inositol monophosphatase;
inositol polyphosphate-5-phosphatase, 145 kD (INPP5D);
Ins(1,3,4,5)P4-binding protein;
insulin (INS);
insulin like growth factor 2 receptor (IGF2R);
integral membrane protein 1 (ITM1);
integral membrane protein 2C (ITM2C);
integral membrane protein Tmp21-I (p23);
integrin beta 4 binding protein (ITGB4BP);
integrin, alpha 2b (platelet glycoprotein IIb of IIb/IIIa complex, antigen CD41B) (ITGA2B);
integrin, alpha 5 (fibronectin receptor, alpha polypeptide) (ITGA5);
integrin, alpha L (antigen CD11A (p180), lymphocyte function-associated antigen 1;
alpha polypeptide) (ITGAL);
integrin, alpha M (complement component receptor 3, alpha;
also known as CD11b (p170), macrophage antigen alpha polypeptide) (ITGAM);
integrin, alpha X (antigen CD11C (p150), alpha polypeptide) (ITGAX);
integrin, beta 1 (fibronectin receptor, beta polypeptide, antigen CD29 includes MDF2 MSK12) (ITGB1);
integrin, beta 2 (antigen CD18 (p95), lymphocyte function-associated antigen 1;
macrophage antigen 1 (mac-1) beta subunit) (ITGB2);
integrin, beta 7 (ITGB7);
Integrin-linked kinase (ILK);
intercellular adhesion molecule 1 (CD54), human rhinovirus receptor (ICAM1);
intercellular adhesion molecule 2 (ICAM2);
intercellular adhesion molecule 3 (ICAM3);
intercellular adhesion molecule 4, Landsteiner-Wiener blood group (ICAM4);
Interferon consensus sequence binding protein 1 (ICSBP1);
interferon regulatory factor 2 (IRF2);
interferon regulatory factor 1 (IRF1);
interferon regulatory factor 5 (IRF5);
interferon, gamma-inducible protein 16 (IFI16);
interferon, gamma-inducible protein 30 (IFI30);
interferon-induced protein 17 (IFI17);
interferon-induced protein 54 (IFI54);
interferon-inducible (1-8D);
interferon-inducible (1-8U);
interferon-related developmental regulator 1 (IFRD1);
interferon-stimulated transcription factor 3, gamma (48 kD) (ISGF3G);
interleukin 1 receptor, type II (IL1R2);
Interleukin 10 receptor, beta (I.10RB);
interleukin 12 receptor, beta 1 (IL12RB1);
interleukin 13 receptor, alpha 1 (IL13RA1);
interleukin 16 (lymphocyte chemoattractant factor) (IL16);
interleukin 18 receptor 1 (IL18R1);
interleukin 2 receptor, beta (IL2RB);
interleukin 2 receptor, gamma (severe combined immunodeficiency) (IL2RG);
interleukin 4 receptor (IL4R);
interleukin 6 receptor (IL6R);
interleukin 6 signal transducer (gp130, oncostatin M receptor) (IL6ST);
interleukin 7 receptor (IL7R);
interleukin 8 (IL8);
interleukin 8 receptor alpha (IL8RA);
interleukin 8 receptor, beta (IL8RB);
interleukin enhancer binding factor 2, 45 kD (ILF2);
interleukin enhancer binding factor 3, 90 kD (ILF3);
interleukin-1 receptor-associated kinase 1 (IRAK1);
interleukin-10 receptor, alpha (IL10RA);
interleukin-11 receptor, alpha (IL11RA);
intestinal carboxylesterase;
IQ motif containing GTPase activating protein 1 (IQGAP1);
IQ motif containing GTPase activating protein 2 (IQGAP2);
isocitrate dehydrogenase 1 (NADP+), soluble (IDH1);
isocitrate dehydrogenase 2 (NADP+), mitochondrial (IDH2);
isocitrate dehydrogenase 3 (NAD+) alpha (DH3A);
isocitrate dehydrogenase 3 (NAD+) gamma (IDH3G);
isolate TzCCR5-179 CCR5 receptor (CCR5);
isopentenyl-diphosphate delta isomerase (IDI1);
Janus kinase 1 (a protein tyrosine kinase) (JAK1);
Janus kinase 2 (a protein tyrosine kinase) (JAK2);
Jk-recombination signal binding protein (RBPJK);
JM1 protein;
jumonji (mouse) homolog (JMJ);
jun D proto-oncogene (JUND);
jun dimerization protein;
junction plakoglobin (JUP);
kangai 1 (suppression of tumorigenicity 6, prostate;
CD82 antigen (R2 leukocyte antigen, antigen detected by monoclonal and antibody IA4)) (KAI1);
karyopherin (importin) beta 1 (KPNB1);
karyopherin (importin) beta 2 (KPNB2);
karyopherin alpha 1 (importin alpha
5) (KPNA1);
karyopherin alpha 2 (RAG cohort 1, importin alpha
1) (DPNA2);
karyopherin alpha 3 (importin alpha
4) (KPNA3);
karyopherin alpha 4 (KPNA4);
Katanin (80 kDa) (KAT);
KE03 protein;
Keratin 8 (KRT8);
ketohexokinase (fructokinase) (KHK);
KIAA0002 (KIAA0002);
KIAA0005 (KIAA0005);
KIAA0010 (KIAA0010);
KIAA0016 (KIAA0016);
KIAA0017 (KIAA0017);
KIAA0022 (KIAA0022);
KIAA0023 (KIAA0023);
KIAA0024 (KIAA0024);
KIAA0025 (KIAA0025);
KIAA0026 (KIAA0026);
KIAA0027;
KIAA0032 (KIAA0032);
KIAA0040 (KIAA0040);
KIAA0050 (KIAA0050);
KIAA0053 (KIAA0053);
KIAA0057 (KIAA0057);
KIAA0058 (KIAA0058);
KIAA0063 (KIAA0063);
KIAA0064 (KIAA0064);
KIAA0066;
KIAA0068;
KIAA0073;
KIAA0081;
KIAA0084;
KIAA0085;
KIAA0088;
KIAA0090;
KIAA0092 (KIAA0092);
KIAA0094;
KIAA0095 (KIAA0095);
KIAA0096;
KIAA0097 (KIAA0097);
KIAA0099 (KIAA0099);
KIAA0102 (KIAA0102);
KIAA0105;
KIAA0121 (KIAA0121);
KIAA0123;
KIAA0128;
KIAA0129 (KIAA0129);
KIAA0130 (KIAA0130);
KIAA0136;
KIAA0137 (KIAA0137);
KIAA0140 (KIAA0140);
KIAA0141 (KIAA0141);
KIAA0144 (KIAA0144);
KIAA0146;
KIAA0148 (KIAA0148);
KIAA0154;
KIAA0156;
KIAA0160;
KIAA0161 (KIAA0161);
KIAA0164 (KIAA0164);
KIAA0167 (KIAA0167);
KIAA0168 (KIAA0168);
KIAA0169;
KIAA0171 (KIAA0171);
KIAA0174 (KIAA0174);
KIAA0179;
KIAA0181;
KIAA0183;
KIAA0184;
KIAA0193 (KIAA0193);
KIAA0200 (KIAA0200);
KIAA0210 (KIAA0210);
KIAA0217;
KIAA0219;
KIAA0222 (KIAA0222);
KIAA0223;
KIAA0229;
KIAA0232 (KIAA0232);
KIAA0233 (KIAA0233);
KIAA0235;
KIAA0239;
KIAA0240;
KIAA0242;
KIAA0248;
KIAA0249 (KIAA0249);
KIAA0253;
KIAA0254 (KIAA0254);
KIAA0255 (KIAA0255);
KIAA0262 (KIAA0262);
KIAA0263 (KIAA0263);
KIAA0264;
KIAA0268;
KIAA0275 (KIAA0275);
KIAA0304 (KIAA0304);
KIAA0308;
KIAA0310 (KIAA0310);
KIAA0315 (KIAA0315);
KIAA0329 (KIAA0329);
KIAA0330;
KIAA0332;
KIAA0333;
KIAA0336 (KIAA0336);
KIAA0342 (KIAA0342);
KIAA0344 (KIAA0344);
KIAA0354 (KIAA0354);
KIAA0365 (KIAA0365);
KIAA0370;
KIAA0372 (KIAA0372);
KIAA0373 (KIAA0373);
KIAA0375 (KIAA0375);
KIAA0377 (KIAA0377);
KIAA0379;
KIAA0380 (KIAA0380);
KIAA0382 (KIAA0382);
KIAA0383;
KIAA0386 (KIAA0386);
KIAA0392;
KIAA0397 (KIAA0397);
KIAA0403;
KIAA0404;
KIAA0409;
KIAA0421;
KIAA0428 (KIAA0428);
KIAA0429 (KIAA0429);
KIAA0430 (KIAA0430);
KIAA0432 (KIAA0432);
KIAA0435 (KIAA0435);
KIAA0438 (KIAA0438);
KIAA0447 (KIAA0447);
KIAA0449;
KIAA0456;
KIAA0458 (KIAA0458);
KIAA0462;
KIAA0465;
KIAA0476 (KIAA0476);
KIAA0489;
KIAA0494 (KIAA0494);
KIAA0515;
KIAA0521;
KIAA0525;
KIAA0530;
KIAA0532;
KIAA0537 (KIAA0537);
KIAA0540;
KIAA0543;
KIAA0544;
KIAA0549;
KIAA0551;
KIAA0554;
KIAA0561;
KIAA0562 (KIAA0562);
KIAA0563 (KIAA0563);
KIAA0569 (KIAA0569);
KIAA0571 (KIAA0571);
KIAA0573;
KIAA0576;
KIAA0580;
KIAA0584;
KIAA0592;
KIAA0596;
KIAA0598 (KIAA0598);
KIAA0608;
KIAA0614;
KIAA0615 (KIAA0615);
KIAA0621;
KIAA0648;
KIAA0652 (KIAA0652);
KIAA0668;
KIAA0669;
KIAA0671 (KIAA0671);
KIAA0675 (KIAA0675);
KIAA0676;
KIAA0677 (KIAA0677);
KIAA0678;
KIAA0679;
KIAA0680 (KIAA0680);
KIAA0692;
KIAA0697;
KIAA0699;
KIAA0700;
KIAA0737 (KIAA0737);
KIAA0748 (KIAA0748);
KIAA0763 (KIAA0763);
KIAA0769 (KIAA0769);
KIAA0782;
KIAA0796;
KIAA0798 (KIAA0798);
KIAA0823;
KIAA0854;
KIAA0856;
KIAA0860;
KIAA0862;
KIAA0873;
KIAA0892;
KIAA0906;
KIAA0991;
killer cell lectin-like receptor subfamily B, member 1 (KLRB1);
killer cell lectin-like receptor subfamily C, member 4 (KLRC4);
kinectin 1 (kinesin receptor) (KTN1);
kinesin family member 5B (KIF5B);
kinesin-like DNA binding protein;
Kruppel related gene (clone pHKR1RS);
Kruppel-like zinc finger protein Zf9;
kruppel-type zinc finger protein, ZK1;
L apoferritin;
lactate dehydrogenase A (LDHA);
lactate dehydrogenase B (LDHB);
lactotransferrin (LTF);
laminin receptor 1 (67 kD);
Ribosomal protein SA (LAMR1);
laminin receptor homolog {3′
region};
laminin, gamma 1 (formerly LAMB2) (LAMC1);
latent transforming growth factor beta binding protein 1 (LTBP1);
LDLC;
lectin, galactoside-binding, soluble, 2 (galectin
2) (LGALS2);
lectin, galactoside-binding, soluble, 3 binding protein (galectin 6 binding protein) (LGALS3BP);
leucine rich repeat (in FLII) interacting protein 1 (LRRFIP1);
leucocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor-5 (LIR-5);
leucocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor-6a (LIR-6);
leucocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor-7 (LIR-7);
leukemia virus receptor 1 (GLVR1);
leukocyte adhesion protein p150, 95 alpha subunit;
leukocyte antigen, HLA-A2;
leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor (MIR-10);
leukocyte tyrosine kinase (LTK);
leukocyte-associated Ig-like receptor 1 (LIAR1);
leukotriene A4 hydrolase (LTA4H);
leupaxin (LDPL);
ligase I, DNA, ATP-dependent (LIG1);
LIM and SH3 protein 1 (LASP1);
LIM domain kinase 2 (LIMK2);
Line-1 repeat mRNA with 2 open reading frames;
Line-1 repeat with 2 open reading frames;
lipase A, lysosomal acid, cholesterol esterase (Wolman disease) (LIPA);
lipase, hormone-sensitive (LIPE);
LMP7;
Lon protease-like protein (LONP);
low density lipoprotein-related protein 1 (alpha-2-macroglobulin receptor) (LRP1);
low density lipoprotein-related protein-associated protein 1 (alpha-2-macroglobulin receptor-associated protein
1) (LRPAP1);
low-affinity Fc-gamma receptor IIA;
LPS-induced TNF-alpha factor (PIG7);
Lst-1;
L-type amino acid transporter subunit LAT1;
lung resistance-related protein (LRP);
Lymphocyte antigen 75 (LY75);
lymphocyte antigen 9 (LY9);
lymphocyte antigen HLA-B*4402 and HLA-B*5101;
lymphocyte cytosolic protein 1 (L-plastin) (LCP1);
lymphocyte cytosolic protein 2 (SH2 domain-containing leukocyte protein of 76 kD) (LCP2);
lymphocyte glycoprotein T1/Leu-1;
lymphocyte-specific protein 1 (LSP1);
lymphocyte-specific protein tyrosine kinase (LCK);
lymphoid phosphatase LyP1;
lymphoid-restricted membrane protein (LRMP);
lymphoid-specific SP100 homolog (LYSP100-A);
lymphoma proprotein convertase (LPC);
lysosomal-associated membrane protein 1 (LAMP1);
Lysosomal-associated membrane protein 2 (LAMP2);
lysozyme (renal amyloidosis) (LYZ);
lysyl-tRNA synthetase (KARS);
M phase phosphoprotein 10 (U3 small nucleolar ribonucleoprotein) (MPP-10);
M1-type and M2-type pyruvate kinase;
m6A methyltransferase (MT-A70);
mab-21 (C. elegans)-like 1 (MAB21L1);
MacMarcks;
macrophage-associated antigen (MM130);
MADS box transcription enhancer factor 2, polypeptide A (myocyte enhancer factor 2A) (MEF2A);
MADS box transcription enhancer factor 2, polypeptide C (myocyte enhancer factor 2C) (MEF2C);
major histocompatibility complex class I beta chain (HLA-B);
major histocompatibility complex, class I, A (HLA-A);
major histocompatibility complex, class I, C (HAL-C);
major histocompatibility complex, class I, E (HLA-E);
major histocompatibility complex, class II, DM BETA (HLA-DMB);
major histocompatibility complex, class II, DP beta 1 (HLA-DPB1);
major histocompatibility complex, class II, DR beta 1 (HLA-DRB1);
Major histocompatibility complex, class II, Y box-binding protein I;
DNA-binding protein B (YB1);
malate dehydrogenase 1, NAD (soluble) (mdh1);
malate dehydrogenase 1, NAD (soluble) (MDH1);
malonyl-CoA decarboxylase precursor;
maltase-glucoamylase (mg);
manic fringe (Drosophila) homolog (MFNG);
mannose phosphate isomerase (MPI);
mannose phosphate isomerase (mpi);
mannose-6-phosphate receptor (cation dependent) (M6PR);
mannose-P-dolichol utilization defect 1 (MPDU1);
mannosidase, alpha B, lysosomal (MANB);
mannosyl (alpha-1,3-)-glycoprotein beta-1,2-N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase (MGAT1);
map 4q35 repeat region;
MAP kinase-interacting serine/threonine kinase 1 (MKNK1);
MAP/ERK kinase kinase 3 (MEKK3);
MAP/ERK kinase kinase 5 (MEKK5);
MAP/microtubule affinity-regulating kinase 3 (MARK3);
Marenostrin protein;
MASL1;
MAX dimerization protein (MAD);
MaxiK potassium channel beta subunit;
MBP-2 for MHC binding protein 2;
Meis (mouse) homolog 3 (MEIS3);
melanoma-associated antigen p97 (melanotransferrin);
membrane cofactor protein (CD46, trophoblast-lymphocyte cross-reactive antigen) (MCP);
membrane component, chromosome 17, surface marker 2 (ovarian carcinoma antigen CA125) (M17S2);
membrane metallo-endopeptidase (neutral endopeptidase, enkephalinase, CALLA, CD10) (MME);
membrane protein, palmitoylated 1 (55 kD) (MPP1);
meningioma expressed antigen (MGEA);
meningioma-expressed antigen 11 (MEA11);
Menkes Disease (ATP7A) putative Cu++-transporting P-type ATPase;
metallothionein 2A (MT2A);
metaxin 1 (MTX1);
methionine adenosyltransferase II, alpha (MAT2A);
methylene tetrahydrofolate dehydrogenase (NAD+ dependent), methenyltetrahydrofolate cyclohydrolase (MTHFD2);
methylenetetrahydrofolate dehydrogenase (NADP+ dependent), methenyltetrahydrofolate cyclohydrolase, formyltetrahydrofolate synthetase (MTHFD1);
methyltransferase, putative;
MHC class 1 region;
MHC class I antigen (HLA-A2);
MHC class I antigen (HLA-A33);
MHC class I antigen (HLA-C);
MHC class I antigen B*5801 (HLA-B);
MHC class I antigen HLA-A (HLA-A);
MHC class I antigen HLA-A (HLA-A-2402 allele);
MHC class I antigen HLA-A11K;
MHC class I antigen HLA-B (B*48 allele);
MHC class I antigen HLA-B (HLA-B*1502 allele);
MHC class I antigen HLA-B (HLA-B*40MD);
MHC class I antigen HLA-B (HLA-B*4103 allele);
MHC class I antigen HLA-B gene (HLA-B*4402 variant allele);
MHC class I antigen HLA-B GN00110-B*3910;
MHC class I antigen HLA-Cw*04011;
MHC class I antigen R69772HLA-A (A*0302);
MHC class I antigen SHCHA (HLA-B*4403 variant);
MHC class I histocompatibility antigen (HLA-B) (clone C21/14);
MHC class I HLA B71;
MHC class I HLA-A (Aw33.1);
MHC class I HLA-B;
MHC class I HLA-B (HLA-B-08NR allele);
MHC class I HLA-B*3512;
MHC class I HLA-B44.2 chain;
MHC class I HLA-B51-cd3.3;
MHC class I HLA-C allele;
MHC class I HLA-Cw*0803;
MHC class I HLA-Cw6;
MHC class I lymphocyte antigen A2 (A2.1) variant DK1;
MHC class I mic-B antigen;
MHC class I polypeptide-related sequence A (MICA);
MHC class II DNA Sequence (clone A37G7-1C11);
MHC class II DQ-alpha associated with DRw6, DQw1 protein;
MHC class II DQ-beta associated with DR2, DQw1 protein;
MHC class II HAL-DQ-LTR5 (DQ,w8) DNA fragment, long terminal repeat region;
MHC class II HLA-DRB1;
MHC class II HLA-DRw11-beta-I chain (DRw11.3);
MHC class II lymphocyte antigen (DPw4-beta-1);
microsomal stress 70 protein ATPase core (stch);
microtubule-associated protein 4 (MAP4);
microtubule-associated protein 7 (MAP7);
mineralocorticoid receptor (aldosterone receptor) (MLR);
minichromosome maintenance deficient (S. cerevisiae) 3 (MCM31);
minichromosome maintenance deficient (S. cerevisiae) 3-associated protein (MCM3AP);
minichromosome maintenance deficient (S. cerevisiae) 5 (cell division cycle
46) (MCM5);
mitochondrial 16S rRNA;
mitochondrial ATP synthase (F1-ATPase) alpha subunit;
mitochondrial ATP synthase c subunit (P1 form);
mitochondrial cytochrome b small subunit of complex II;
mitochondrial DNA loop attachment sequences (clone LAS34);
mitochondrial DNA polymerase accessory subunit precursor (MtPolB) nuclear gene encoding mitochondrial protein;
mitochondrial DNA, complete genome;
mitochondrial inner membrane preprotein translocase Tim17a;
mitochondrial loop attachment sequence (clone LAS88);
mitochondrial NADH dehydrogenase subunit 2 (ND2);
mitochondrial translational initiation factor 2 (MTIF2);
mitochondrion cytochrome b;
mitogen inducible gene mig-2;
mitogen-activated protein kinase-activated protein kinase 3 (MAPKAPK3);
MLN51;
moesin (MSN);
monocytic leukaemia zinc finger protein (MOZ);
MOP1 ( );
motor protein (Hs.78504);
mouse double minute 2, human homolog of;
p53-binding protein (MDM2);
M-phase phosphoprotein 6 (MPP-6);
M-phase phosphoprotein, mpp11;
MPS1;
Mr 110,000 antigen;
mu-adaptin-related protein-2;
mu subunit of AP-4 (MU-ARP2);
murine leukemia viral (bmi-1) oncogene homolog (BMI1);
mutant (Daudi) beta2-microglobulin;
mutated in Alzheimer'"'"'s diseases (MCC);
myeloid cell leukemia sequence 1 (BCL2-related) (MCL1);
myeloid cell nuclear differentiation antigeN (MNDA);
myeloid differentiation primary response gene (88) (MYD88);
myeloid leukemia factor 2 (MLF2);
myeloid/lymphoid or mixed-lineage leukemia (trithorax (Drosophila) homolog);
translocated to, 7 (MLLT7);
MYH9 (cellular myosin heavy chain);
myomesin (M-protein) 2 (165 kD) (MYOM2);
myosin IE (MYO1E);
myosin light chain kinase (MLCK);
myosin phosphatase, target subunit 1 (MYPT1);
myosin, heavy polypeptide 9, non-muscle (MYH9);
myosin, light polypeptide, regulatory, non-sarcomeric (20 kD) (MLCB);
myosin-I beta;
myristoylated alanine-rich protein kinase C substrate (MARCKS, 80K-L) (MACS);
myxovirus (influenza) resistance 1, homolog of murine (interferon-inducible protein p78) (MX1);
myxovirus (influenza) resistance 2, homolog of murine (MX2);
N-acetylgalactosaminidase, alpha-(NAGA);
N-acetylglucosamine receptor 1 (thyroid) (NAGR1);
NACP/alpha-synuclein;
N-acylaminoacyl-peptide hydrolase (APEH);
N-acylsphingosine amidohydrolase (acid ceramidase) (ASAH);
NAD+-specific isocitrate dehydrogenase beta subunit precursor (encoding mitochondrial protein);
NADH dehydrogenase (ubiquinone) 1 alpha subcomplex, 5 (13 kD, B13) (NDUFA5);
NADH dehydrogenase (ubiquinone) 1 beta subcomplex, 5 (16 kD, SGDH) (NDUFB5);
NADH dehydrogenase (ubiquinone) Fe-S protein 2 (49 kD) (NADH-coenzyme Q eductase) (NDUFS2);
NADH dehydrogenase (ubiquinone) flavoprotein 2 (24 kD) (NDUFV2);
NADH;
ubiquinone dehydrogenase 51 kDa subunit (NDUFV1);
Nardilysin (N-arginine dibasic convertase) (NRD1);
nascent-polypeptide-associated complex alpha polypeptide (NACA);
natural killer cell group 7 sequence (NKG7);
natural killer cell transcript 4 (NK4);
natural killer-associated transcript 3 (NKAT3);
natural killer-associated transcript 5 (NKAT5);
natural killer-tumor recognition sequence (NKTR);
N-deacetylase/N-sulfotransferase (heparan glucosaminyl) 2 (NDST2);
Ndr protein kinase;
Nedd-4-like ubiquitin-protein ligase WWP1;
nel (chicken)-like 2 (NELL2);
N-ethylmaleimide-sensitive factor attachment protein, alpha (NAPA);
N-ethylmaleimide-sensitive factor attachment protein, gamma (NAPG);
neural precursor cell expressed, developmentally down-regulated 5 (NEDD5);
neural precursor cell expressed, developmentally down-regulated 8 (NEDD8);
neuregulin 1 (NRG1);
neuroblastoma RAS viral (v-ras) oncogene homolog (NRAS);
Neurofibromin 2 (bilateral acoustic neuroma) (NF2);
neuronal apoptosis inhibitory protein (NAIP);
neuronal cell adhesion molecule (NRCAM);
neuropathy target esterase (NTE);
neurotrophic tyrosine kinase, receptor, type 1 (NTRK1);
neutrophil cytosolic factor 4 (40 kD);
NG31;
nibrin (NBS);
NIK;
Ninjurin 1;
nerve injury-induced protein-1;
Nmi;
N-myristoyltransferase 1 (NMT1);
No arches-like (zebrafish) zinc finger protein (NAR);
non-histone chromosome protein 2 (S. cerevisiae)-like 1 (NHP2L1);
non-muscle alpha-actinin;
non-muscle myosin alkali light chain (Hs.77385);
non-neuronal enolase (EC 4.2.1.11);
non-receptor tyrosine phosphatase 1;
normal keratinocyte substraction library mRNA, clone H22a;
notch group protein (N);
novel protein;
novel T-cell activation protein;
N-sulfoglucosamine sulfohydrolase (sulfamidase) (SGSH);
nsulin induced gene 1 (INSIG1);
integrin, alpha 4 (antigen CD49D, alpha 4 subunit of VLA-4 receptor) (ITGA14);
interferon, gamma-inducible protein 16 (IFI16);
interleukin 1, beta (IL1RB);
nuclear antigen H731-like protein;
nuclear antigen Sp100 (SP100);
nuclear autoantigenic sperm protein (histone-binding) (NASP);
Nuclear domain 10 protein (NDP52);
Nuclear factor (erythroid-derived
2)-like 2 (NFE2L2);
Nuclear factor of kappa light polypeptide gene enhancer in B-cells 1 (p105) (NFKB1);
nuclear factor of kappa light polypeptide gene enhancer in B-cells inhibitor, alpha (NFKBIA);
nuclear factor related to kappa B binding protein (NFRKB);
nuclear mitotic apparatus protein 1 (NUMA1);
nuclear receptor coactivator 2 (GRIP1);
nuclear receptor coactivator 3 (AIB3);
nuclear receptor coactivator 4 (ELE1);
nuclear receptor interacting protein 1 (NRIP1);
nuclear respiratory factor 1 (NRF1);
nuclear RNA helicase, DECD variant of DEAD box family (DDXL);
nuclear transcription factor Y, alpha (NFYA);
nuclear transcription factor, X-box binding 1 (NFX1);
nuclear transport factor 2 (placental protein
15) (PP15);
nucleobindin 1 (NUCB1);
nucleolar phosphoprotein p130 (P130);
nucleolar protein (KKE/D repeat) (NOP56);
nucleolar protein (MSP58);
nucleolar protein 1 (12 kD) (NOL1);
nucleolar protein p40;
nucleolin (NCL);
nucleophosmin (nucleolar phosphoprotein B23, numatrin) (NPM1);
nucleophosmin-retinoic acid receptor alpha fusion protein NPM-RAR long form;
nucleoporin 153 kD (NUP153);
nucleoporin 98 kD (NUP98);
nucleosome assembly protein;
nucleosome assembly protein 1-like 1 (NAP1L1);
nucleosome assembly protein 1-like 4 (NAP1L4);
nucleosome assembly protein, 5′
UTR;
olfactory receptor (OR7-141);
oligodendrocyte myelin glycoprotein (OMG);
O-linked N-acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc) transferase (UDP-N-acetylglucosamine;
polypeptide-N-acetylglucosaminyl transferase) (OGT);
ORF (Hs.77868);
ORF1;
MER37;
origin recognition complex, subunit 2 (yeast homolog)-like (ORC2L);
ornithine aminotransferase (gyrate atrophy) (OAT);
ornithine decarboxylase (ODC);
ornithine decarboxylase antizyme, ORF 1 and ORF 2;
orphan receptor (Hs.100221);
OS-9 precurosor;
ovel centrosomal protein RanBPM (RANBPM);
over-expressed breast tumor protein;
oviductal glycoprotein 1, 120 kD (OVGP1);
oxidase (cytochrome c) assembly 1-like (OXAIL);
oxoglutarate dehydrogenase (lipoamide) (OGDH);
oxysterol binding protein (OSBP);
OZF;
p21/Cdc42/Rac1-activated kinase 1 (yeast Ste20-related) (PAK1);
p40;
P47 LBC oncogene;
p53-induced protein (PIG11);
p62 nucleoporin;
p63 mRNA for transmembrane protein;
palmitoyl-protein thioesterase (ceroid-lipofuscinosis, neuronal 1, infantile;
Haltia-Santavuori disease) (PPT);
papillary renal cell carcinoma (translocation-associated) (PRCC);
PAR protein;
PAX3/forkhead transcription factor gene fusion;
paxillin (PXN);
PBK1 protein;
PDZ domain protein (Drosophila inaD-like) (INALD);
peptidase D (PEPD);
peptidylprolyl isomerase A (cyclophilin A) (PPIA);
peptidylprolyl isomerase D (cyclophilin D) (PPID);
peptidylprolyl isomerase E (cyclophilin E) (PPIE);
perforin 1 (preforming protein) (PRF1);
peroxisomal acyl-CoA thioesterase (PTE1);
Peroxisomal acyl-coenzyme A oxidase;
peroxisomal farnesylated protein (PXF);
phorbol-12-myristate-13-acetate-induced protein (PMAIP1);
Phosphate carrier, mitochondrial (PHC);
phosphate cytidylyltransferase 1, choline, alpha isoform (PCYT1A);
phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase delta catalytic subunit;
phosphatidylinositol 4-kinase, catalytic, beta polypeptide (PIK4CB);
phosphatidylinositol glycan, class H (PIGH);
phosphatidylinositol transfer protein (PI-TPbeta);
phosphatidylinositol transfer protein, membrane-associated (PITPNM);
phosphatidylinositol-4-phosphate 5-kinase, type II, alpha (PIP5K2A);
phosphatidylinositol-4-phosphate 5-kinase, type II, beta (PIP5K2B);
phosphodiesterase 7A (PDE7A);
phosphodiesterase IB (PDES1B);
phosphoglucomutase 1 (PGM1);
phosphogluconate dehydrogenase (PGD);
phosphoglycerate kinase 1 (PGK1);
phosphoglycerate mutase 1 (brain) (PGAM1);
phosphoglycerate mutase 2 (muscle) (PGAM2);
phosphoinositide-3-kinase, catalytic, alpha polypeptide (PIK3CA);
phosphoinositide-3-kinase, catalytic, delta polypeptide (PIK3CD);
phosphoinositide-3-kinase, catalytic, gamma polypeptide (PIK3CG);
phospholipase C;
phospholipase C, delta 1 (PLCD1);
phospholipase C, gamma 1 (formerly subtype
148) (PLCG1);
phospholipid scramblase;
phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate synthetase-associated protein 1 (PRPSAP1);
phosphoribosylglycinamide formyltransferase, phosphoribosylglycinamide synthetase, phosphoribosylaminoimidazole synthetase (GART);
phosphorylase kinase, alpha 2 (liver), glycogen storage disease IX (PHKA2);
phosphorylase, glycogen;
brain (PYGB);
phosphorylase, glycogen;
liver (Hers disease, lycogen storage disease type VI) (PYGL);
phosphorylation regulatory protein HP-10;
phosphotidylinositol transfer protein (PITPN);
pigment epithelium-derived factor (PEDF);
pim-1 oncogene (PIM1);
pinin, desmosome associated protein (PNN);
placenta (Diff33);
placenta (Diff48);
plasminogen activator, urokinase receptor (PLAUR);
platelet factor 4 (PF4);
platelet/endothelial cell adhesion molecule (CD31 antigen) (PECAM1);
platelet-activating factor acetylhydrolase 2 (40 kD) (PAFAH2);
platelet-activating factor acetylhydrolase, isoform Ib, alpha subunit (45 kD) (PAFAH1B1);
platelet-activating factor receptor (PTAFR);
pleckstrin (PLEK);
pleckstrin homology, Sec7 and coiled/coil domains 1 (cytohesin
1) (PSCD1);
pleckstrin homology, Sec7 and coiled/coil domains, binding protein (PSCDBP);
pM5 protein;
PMP69;
poly(A) polymerase (PAP);
poly(A)-binding protein-like 1 (PABPL1);
poly(rC)-binding protein 1 (PCBP1);
polyadenylate binding protein;
polycystic kidney disease 1 (autosomal dominant) (PKD1);
polymerase (DNA directed), beta (POLB);
polymerase (DNA directed), gamma (POLG);
polymerase (RNA) II (DNA directed) polypeptide A (220 kD) (POLR2A);
polymyositis/scleroderma autoantigen 2 (100 kD) (PMSCL2);
polypyrimidine tract binding protein (heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein I) (PTB);
positive regulator of programmed cell death ICH-1L (Ich-1);
postmeiotic segregation increased 2-like 12 (PMS2L12);
postmeiotic segregation increased 2-like 8 (PMS2L8);
potassium inwardly-rectifying channel, subfamily J, member 15 (KCNJ15);
potassium voltage-gated channel, KQT-like subfamily, member 1 (KCNQ1);
POU domain, class 2, associating factor 1 (POU2AF1);
POU domain, class 2, transcription factor 1 (POU2F1);
PPAR binding protein (PPARBP);
PPAR gamma2;
pre-B-cell colony-enhancing factor (PBEF);
prefoldin 1 (PFDN1);
prefoldin 5 (PRFLD5);
pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPPA);
pre-mRNA splicing factor SRp20, 5′
UTR;
preprotein translocase (TIM17);
prion protein;
prion protein (p27-30) (Creutzfeld-Jakob disease, Gerstmann-Strausler-Scheinker syndrome, fatal familial insomnia) (PRNP);
procollagen-lysine, 2-oxoglutarate 5-dioxygenase (lysine hydroxylase, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome type VI) (PLOD);
procollagen-proline, 2-oxoglutarate 4-dioxygenase (proline 4-hydroxylase), alpha polypeptide 1 (P4HA1);
procollagen-proline, 2-oxoglutarate 4-dioxygenase (proline 4-hydroxylase), beta polypeptide (protein disulfide isomerase;
thyroid hormone binding protein p55) (P4HB);
profilin 1 (PFN1);
progesterone receptor-associated p48 protein (P48);
prohibitin (PHB);
proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA);
proliferation-associated gene A (natural iller-enhancing factor A) (PAGA);
proline-serine-threonine phosphatase interacting protein 1 (PSTPIP1);
prolyl endopeptidase (PREP);
prolylcarboxypeptidase (angiotensinase C) (PRCP);
promyelocytic leukemia (PML);
properdin P factor, complement (PFC);
pro-platelet basic protein (includes platelet basic protein, beta-thromboglobulin, connective tissue-activating peptide III, neutrophil-activating peptide-2) (PPBP);
proprotein convertase subtilisin/kexin type 7 (PCSK7);
prosaposin (variant Gaucher disease and variant metachromatic leukodystrophy) (PSAP);
prostaglandin-endoperoxide synthase 1 (prostaglandin G/H synthase and cyclooxygenase) (PTGS1);
prostaglandin-endoperoxide synthase 2 (prostaglandin G/H synthase and cyclooxygenase) (PTGS2);
prostate carcinoma tumor antigen (pcta-1);
protease inhibitor 1 (anti-elastase), alpha-1-antitrypsin (PI);
protease inhibitor 2 (anti-elastase), proteasome (prosome, macropain) 26S subunit, ATPase, 1 (PSMC1);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) 26S subunit, ATPase, 3 (PSMC3);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) 26S subunit, ATPase, 4 (PSMC4);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) 26S subunit, ATPase, 5 (PSMC5);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) 26S subunit, ATPase, 6 (PMSC6);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) 26S subunit, non-ATPase, 11 (PSMD11);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) 26S subunit, non-ATPase, 2 (PSMD2);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) 26S subunit, non-ATPase, 5 (PSMD5);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) 26S subunit, non-ATPase, 7 (Mov34 homolog) (PMSD7);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) 26S subunit, on-ATPase, 12 (PMSD12);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) activator subunit 1 (PA28 alpha) (PSME1);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) subunit, alpha type, 3 (PSMA3);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) subunit, alpha type, 5 (PSMA5);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) subunit, alpha type, 7 (PSMA7);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) subunit, beta type, 1 (PSMB1);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) subunit, beta type, 10 (PSMB10);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) subunit, beta type, 6 (PMSB6);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) subunit, beta type, 8 (large multifunctional protease
7) (PSMB8);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) subunit, beta type, 9 (large multifunctional protease
2) (PSMB9);
proteasome (prosome, macropain) subunit, beta type, 7 (PSMB7);
protective protein for beta-galactosidase (galactosialidosis) (PPGB);
protein A alternatively spliced form 2 (A-2);
protein activator of the interferon-induced protein kinase (PACT);
protein disulfide isomerase-related protein (P5);
protein geranylgeranyltransferase type I, beta subunit (PGGT1B);
protein homologous to chicken B complex protein, guanine nucleotide binding (H12.3);
protein kinase A anchoring protein;
protein kinase C substrate 80K-H (PRKCSH);
protein kinase C, beta 1 (PRKCB1);
protein kinase C, delta (PRKCD);
protein kinase C, eta (PRKCH);
Protein kinase C-like 1 (PRKCL1);
protein kinase, AMP-activated, gamma 1 non-catalytic subunit (PRKAG1);
protein kinase, cAMP-dependent, regulatory, type I, alpha (tissue specific extinguisher
1) (PRKAR1A);
protein kinase, DNA-activated, catalytic polypeptide (PRKDC);
protein kinase, mitogen-activated 1 (MAP kinase 1;
p40, p41) (PRKM1);
protein kinase, mitogen-activated 6 (extracellular signal-regulated kinase, p9′
7) (PRKM6);
protein kinase, mitogen-activated, kinase 3 (MAP kinase kinase
3) (PRKMK3);
protein phosphatase 1, catalytic subunit, alpha isoform (PPP1CA);
protein phosphatase 1, regulatory subunit 10 (PPPR10);
protein phosphatase 1, regulatory subunit 7 (PPP1R7);
protein phosphatase 2 (formerly 2A), catalytic subunit, beta isoform (PPP2CB);
protein phosphatase 2 (formerly 2A), regulatory subunit B″
(PR
72), alpha isoform and (PR
130), beta isoform (PPP2R3);
protein phosphatase 2, regulatory subunit B (B56), alpha isoform (PPP2R5A);
protein phosphatase 2, regulatory subunit B (B56), delta isoform (PPP2R5D);
protein phosphatase 2, regulatory subunit B (B56), gamma isoform (PPP2R5C);
protein phosphatase 2A regulatory subunit alpha-isotype (alpha-PR65);
protein phosphatase 4 (formerly X), catalytic subunit (PPP4C);
protein tyrosine kinase 2 beta (PTK2B);
protein tyrosine phosphatase epsilon;
protein tyrosine phosphatase type IVA, member 2 (PTP4A2);
protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 1 (PTPN1);
protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 12 (PTPN12);
protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 2 (PTPN2);
protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 4 (megakaryocyte) (PTPN4);
protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 6 (PTPN6);
protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 7 (PTPN7);
protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, alpha polypeptide (PTPRA);
protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, c polypeptide (PTPRC);
protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, M (PTPRM);
protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, N polypeptide 2 (PTPRN2);
protein with polyglutamine repeat (ERPROT213-21);
protein-kinase, interferon-inducible double stranded RNA dependent inhibitor (PRKRI);
protein-L-isoaspartate (D-aspartate) O-methyltransferase (PCMT1);
proteoglycan 1, secretory granule (PRG1);
prothymosin, alpha (gene sequence
28) (PTMA);
prp28, U5 snRNP 100 kd protein (U5-100K);
PRP4/STK/WD splicing factor (HPRP4P);
PTK7 protein tyrosine kinase 7 (PTK7);
purinergic receptor P2X, ligand-gated ion channel, 4 (P2RX4);
purinergic receptor P2X, ligand-gated ion channel, 7 (P2RX7);
puromycin-sensitive aminopeptidase (PSA);
putative ATP (GTP)-binding protein;
putative brain nuclearly-targeted protein (KIAA0765);
putative chemokine receptor;
GTP-binding protein (HM74);
putative dienoyl-CoA isomerase (ECH1);
putative G-binding protein;
Putative human HLA class II associated protein I (PHAP1);
Putative L-type neutral amino acid transporter (KIAA0436);
putative mitochondrial space protein 32.1;
putative nucleic acid binding protein;
putative outer mitochondrial membrane 34 kDa translocase Htom34;
putative translation initiation factor (SUI1);
putative tumor suppressor protein (123F2);
pyrroline 5-carboxylate reductase;
pyruvate dehydrogenase (lipoamide) alpha 1 (PDHA1);
pyruvate dehydrogenase (lipoamide) beta (PDHB);
Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, lipoyl-containing component X;
E3-binding protein (PDX1);
pyruvate kinase, muscle (PKM2);
RAB, member of RAS oncogene family-like (RABL);
RAB1, member RAS oncogene family (RAB1);
RAB11A, member RAS oncogene family (RAB11A);
RAB11B, member RAS oncogene family (Rab11B);
RAB27A, member RAS oncogene family (RAB27A);
RAB5B, member RAS oncogene family (RAB5B);
RAB6, member RAS oncogene family (RAB6);
RAB7, member RAS oncogene family (RAB7);
RAB7, member RAS oncogene family-like 1 (RAB7L1);
RAB9, member RAS oncogene family (RAB9);
RAD50 (S. cerevisiae) homolog (RAD50);
RAD51 (S. cerevisiae) homolog C (RAD51C);
Radin blood group (RD);
RAE1 (RNA export 1, S. pombe) homolog (RAE1);
ralA-binding protein (RLIP76);
RAN binding protein 2-like 1 (RANBP2L1);
Ran GTPase activating protein 1 (RANGAP1);
transforming growth factor, beta receptor II (70-80 kD) (TGFBR2);
RAP1A, member of RAS oncogene family (RAP1A);
RAR-related orphan receptor C (RORC);
RAS guanyl releasing protein 2 (calcium and DAG-regulated);
ras homolog gene family, member A (ARHA);
ras homolog gene family, member G (rho G) (ARHG);
ras homolog gene family, member H (ARHH);
ras inhibitor (RIN1);
Ras-GTPase activating protein SH3 domain-binding protein 2 (KIAA0660);
Ras-GTPase-activating protein SH3-domain-binding protein (G3BP);
ras-related C3 botulinum toxin substrate 2 (rho family, small GTP binding protein Rac2) (RAC2);
RBQ-1;
regulator of Fas-induced apoptosis (TOSO);
regulator of G protein signalling 6 (RGS6);
regulator of G-protein signalling 14 (RGS14);
regulator of G-protein signalling 2, 24 kD (RGS2);
regulatory factor X, 4 (influences HLA class II expression) (RFX4);
regulatory factor X, 5 (influences HLA class II expression (RFX5);
replication protein A1 (RPA1);
reproduction 8 (D8S2298E);
requiem, apoptosis response zinc finger gene (REQ);
restin (Reed-Steinberg cell-expressed intermediate filament-associated protein) (RSN);
retinoblastoma 1 (including osteosarcoma) (RB1);
retinoblastoma binding protein 2 homolog 1 (RBBP2H1);
retinoblastoma-binding protein 1 (RBBP1);
retinoblastoma-binding protein 2 (RBBP2);
retinoblastoma-binding protein 4 (RBBP4);
retinoblastoma-binding protein 7 (RBBP7);
retinoblastoma-like 2 (p130) (RBL2);
retinoic acid receptor responder (tazarotene induced) 3 (RARRES3);
retinoic acid receptor, alpha (RARA);
retinoic acid responsive (NN8-4AG);
retinoid X receptor beta (RXR-beta);
REV3 (yeast homolog)-like, catalytic subunit of DNA polymerase zeta (REV3L);
Rho GDP dissociation inhibitor (GDI) beta (ARHGDIB);
Rho GTPase activating protein 4 (ARHGAP4);
Rho-associated, coiled-coil containing protein kinase 2 (ROCK2);
ribonuclease 6 precursor (RNASE6PL);
ribonuclease, RNase A family, 2 (liver, eosinophil-derived neurotoxin) (RNASE2);
ribonuclease/angiogenin inhibitor (RNH);
ribonucleoside diphosphate reductase M1 subunit;
ribophorin I (RPN1);
ribophorin II (RPN2);
ribosomal 18S rRNA;
ribosomal 28S RNA;
ribosomal protein L10 (RPL10);
ribosomal protein L11 (RPL11);
ribosomal protein L12 (RPL19);
ribosomal protein L14 (RPL14);
ribosomal protein L17 (RPL17);
ribosomal protein L18 (RPL18);
ribosomal protein L18a (RPL18A);
ribosomal protein L18a homologue;
ribosomal protein L19 (RPL19);
ribosomal protein L21 (RPL21);
ribosomal protein L22 (RPL22);
ribosomal protein L23 (RPL23);
ribosomal protein L23a (RPL23A);
ribosomal protein L26 (RPL26);
ribosomal protein L27 (RPL27);
ribosomal protein L27a (RPL27A);
ribosomal protein L28 (RPL28);
ribosomal protein L29 (RPL29);
ribosomal protein L3 (RPL3);
ribosomal protein L3 homologue;
ribosomal protein L30 (RPL30);
ribosomal protein L31 (RPL31);
ribosomal protein L32 (RPL32);
ribosomal protein L33-like (RPL33L);
ribosomal protein L34 (RPL34);
ribosomal protein L37 (RPL37);
ribosomal protein L37a;
ribosomal protein L38 (PRL38);
ribosomal protein L4 (RPL4);
ribosomal protein L41 (RPL41);
ribosomal protein L5 (RPL5);
ribosomal protein L6 (RPL6);
ribosomal protein L7 (RPL7);
ribosomal protein L7a (RPL7A);
ribosomal protein L8 (RPL8);
ribosomal protein L9 (RPL9);
ribosomal protein S10 (RPS10);
ribosomal protein S11 (RPS11);
ribosomal protein S12 (RPS12);
ribosomal protein S13 (RPS13);
ribosomal protein S14 (RPS14);
ribosomal protein S15 (RPS15);
ribosomal protein S16 (RPS16);
ribosomal protein S17 (RPS17);
ribosomal protein S18;
ribosomal protein S19 (RPS19);
ribosomal protein S2 (RPS2);
ribosomal protein S20 (RPS20);
ribosomal protein S21 (RPS21);
ribosomal protein S23 (RPS23);
ribosomal protein S24 (RPS24);
ribosomal protein S25 (RPS25);
ribosomal protein S26 (RPS26);
ribosomal protein S27 ((metallopanstimulin
1) (RPS27);
ribosomal protein S28 (RPS28);
ribosomal protein S29 (RPS29);
ribosomal protein S3 (RPS3);
ribosomal protein S3A (RPS3A);
ribosomal protein S4, X-linked (RPS4X);
ribosomal protein S4, Y-linked (RPS4Y);
ribosomal protein S5 (RPS5);
ribosomal protein S6 (RPS6);
ribosomal protein S6 kinase, 90 kD, polypeptide 1 (RPS6KA1);
ribosomal protein S6 kinase, 90 kD, polypeptide 2 (RPS6KA2);
ribosomal, protein S7 (RPS7);
ribosomal protein S8 (RPS8);
ribosomal protein S9 (RPS9);
ribosomal protein, large, P0 (RPLP0);
ribosomal protein, large, P1 (RPLP1);
ribosomal RNA 28S;
ribosomal RNA, 16S;
ring finger protein 3 (RNF3);
ring finger protein 4 (RNF4);
ring zinc-finger protein (ZNF127-Xp);
RNA (guanine-7-) methyltransferase (RNMT);
RNA binding motif protein 5 (RBM5);
RNA binding motif, single stranded interacting protein 2 (RBMS2);
RNA helicase (putative), (Myc-regulated DEAD box protein) (MRD8);
RNA helicase-related protein;
RNA pol II largest subunit;
RNA polymerase I subunit (RPA40);
RTVP-1 protein;
S100 calcium-binding protein A10 (annexin II ligand, calpactin I, light polypeptide (p11)) (S100A10);
S100 calcium-binding protein A11 (calgizzarin) (S100A11);
S100 calcium-binding protein A4 (calcium protein, calvasculin, metastasin, murine placental homolog) (S100A4);
S100 calcium-binding protein A8 (calgranulin A) (S100A8);
S100 calcium-binding protein A9 (calgranulin B) (S100A9);
S164 gene;
S-adenosylmethionine decarboxylase 1 (AMD1);
SB class II histocompatibility antigen alpha-chain;
SC35-interacting protein 1 (SRRP129);
scaffold attachment factor B (SAFB);
scRNA molecule, transcribed from Alu repeat;
SEC14 (S. cerevisiae)-like (SEC14L);
SEC23-like protein B (SEC23B);
SEC63 (SEC63);
secreted protein, acidic, cysteine-rich (osteonectin) (SPARC);
secretory carrier membrane protein 1 (SCAMP1);
secretory carrier membrane protein 2 (SCAMP2);
secretory carrier membrane protein 3 (SCAMP3);
secretory granule proteoglycan core (clones lambda-PG[6,7,8]);
selectin L (lymphocyte adhesion molecule
1) (SELL);
selectin P ligand (SELPLG);
sema domain, immunoglobulin domain (Ig), transmembrane domain (TM) and short cytoplasmic domain, (semaphorin) 4D (SEMA4D);
Ser/Arg-related nuclear matrix protein (plenty of prolines 101-like) (SRM160);
serine palmitoyltransferase subunit I (SPTI);
serine palmitoyltransferase, subunit II (LCB2);
serine protease;
serine protease inhibitor, Kunitz type, 2 (SPINT2);
serine/threonine kinase 10 (STK10);
serine/threonine kinase 19 (STK19);
serine/threonine kinase 4 (STK4);
serine/threonine protein kinase KKIALRE (KKIALRE);
serine/threonine protein-kinase (NIK);
serologically defined colon cancer antigen 16 (NY-CO-16);
serologically defined colon cancer antigen 33 (SDCCAG33);
serum/glucocorticoid regulated kinase (SGK);
SET domain, bifurcated 1 (SETDB1);
SH2 domain protein 1A, Duncan'"'"'s disease lymphoproliferative syndrome) (SH2D1A);
SH3 binding protein (SAB);
SH3 domain protein 1B (SH3D1B);
SH3-binding domain glutamic acid-rich protein like (SH3BGRL);
SH3-domain GRB2-like 1 (SH3GL1);
SHC (Src homology 2 domain-containing) transforming protein 1 (SHC1);
siah binding protein 1 (SiahBP1);
Sialomucin CD164 (CD164);
sialophorin (gpL115, leukosialin, CD43) (SNP);
sialyltransferase (STHM);
sialyltransferase 1 (beta-galactoside alpha-2,6-sialytransferase) (SIAT1);
sialyltransferase 4A (beta-galactosidase alpha-2,3-sialytransferase) (SIAT4A);
sialyltransferase 8 (alpha-2,8-polysialytransferase) D (SIAT8D);
signal peptidase 25 kDa subunit;
signal recognition particle 14 kD (homologous Alu RNA-binding protein) (SRP14);
signal recognition particle 54 kD (SRP54);
signal recognition particle 9 kD (SRP9);
signal recognition particle receptor (‘
docking protein’
) SRPR;
signal regulatory protein, beta, 1 (SIRP-BETA-1);
signal sequence receptor, alpha (translocon-associated protein alpha) (SSR1);
signal sequence receptor, beta (translocon-associated protein beta) (SSR2);
signal transducer and activator of transcription (STAT5A);
signal transducer and activator of transcription 2, 113 KD (STAT2);
signal transducer and activator of transcription 3 (acute-phase response factor) (STAT3);
signal transducer and activator of transcription 5A (STAT5A);
signal transducing adaptor molecule (SH3 domain and ITAM motif) 1 (STAM);
silencing mediator of retinoid and thyroid hormone action (SMRT);
SIT protein;
Sjogren syndrome antigen A1 (52 kD, ribonucleoprotein autoantigen SS-A/Ro) (SSA1);
SKAP55 homologue (SKAP-HOM);
skb1 (S. pombe) homolog (SKB1);
skeletal muscle abundant protein;
SMA3 (SMA3);
small acidic protein;
small EDRK-rich factor 2 (SERF2);
small inducible cytokine A5 (RANTES) (SCYA5);
small inducible cytokine subfamily C, member 2 (SCYC2);
small nuclear ribonucleoprotein polypeptide B″
(SNRPB2);
small nuclear ribonucleoprotein polypeptide N (SNRPN);
small nuclear ribonucleoprotein polypeptides B and B1 (SNRPB);
small nuclear RNA activating complex, polypeptide 5, 19 kD (SNAPC5);
smallest subunit of ubiquinol-cytochrome c reductase;
SMC (mouse) homolog, X chromosome (SMCX);
SMT3B protein (2);
SNC19;
SNC73 protein (SNC73);
solute carrier family 1 (neutral amino acid transporter), member 5 (SLC1A5);
Solute carrier family 11 (proton-coupled divalent metal ion transporters), member 1 (SLC11A1);
solute carrier family 17 (sodium phosphate), member 3 (SLC17A3);
solute carrier family 19 (folate transporter), member 1 (SLC19A1);
solute carrier family 2 (facilitated glucose transporter), member 1 (SLC2A1);
solute carrier family 23 (nucleobase transporters), member 2 (SLC23A2);
solute carrier family 25 (mitochondria carrier;
oxoglutarate carrier), member 11 (SLC25A11);
solute carrier family 31 (copper transporters), member 2 (SLC31A2);
solute carrier family 4, anion exchanger, member 2 (erythrocyte membrane protein band 3-like
1) (SLC4A2);
solute carrier family 4, sodium bicarbonate cotransporter, member 8 (SLC4A8);
solute carrier family 7 (cationic amino acid transporter, y+ system), member 5 (SLC7A5);
solute carrier family 7 (cationic amino acid transporter, y+ system), member 6 (SLC7A6);
solute carrier family 9 (sodium/hydrogen exchanger), isoform 6 (SLC9A6);
somatic cytochrome c (HCS);
SON DNA binding protein (SON);
son of sevenless (Drosophila) homolog 1 (SOS1);
sorcin (SRI);
sortilin 1 (SORT1);
sortilin-related receptor, L (DLR class) A repeats-containing (SORL1);
sorting nexin 1 (SNX1);
sorting nexin 2 (SNX2);
Sp3 transcription factor (SP3);
special AT-rich sequence binding protein 1 (binds to nuclear matrix/scaffold-associating DNA'"'"'s) (SATB1);
speckle-type POZ protein (SPOP);
spectrin SH3 domain binding protein 1 (SSH3BP1);
Spectrin, alpha, non-erythrocytic 1 (alpha-fodrin) (SPTAN1);
spermidine/spermine N1-acetyltransferase (SAT);
spermine synthase (SMS);
SPF31 (SPF31);
sphingomyelin phosphodiesterase 1, acid lysosomal (acid sphingomyelinase) (SMPD1);
spinocerebellar ataxia 1 (olivopontocerebellar ataxia 1, autosomal dominant, ataxin
1) (SCA1);
spinocerebellar ataxia 2 (olivopontocerebellar ataxia 2, autosomal dominant, ataxin
2) (SCA2);
spinocerebellar ataxia 7 (olivopontocerebellar atrophy with retinal degeneration) (SCAT);
spliceosome associated protein (SAP
145);
splicing factor (CC1.3) (CC1.3);
splicing factor SRp40-1 (SRp40);
splicing factor, arginine/serine-rich 11 (SFRS11);
splicing factor, arginine/serine-rich 7 (35 kD) (SFRS7);
Src-like-adapter (SLA);
stannin (SNN);
STAT induced STAT inhibitor 3 (SSI-3);
STE20-like kinase 3 (MST-3);
step 11 splicing factor SLU7 (SLUT);
steroid sulfatase;
steroid sulfatase (microsomal), arylsulfatase C, isozyme S (STS);
sterol carrier protein 2 (SCP2);
sterol O-acyltransferase (acyl-Coenzyme A;
cholesterol acyltransferase) 1 (SOAT1);
stimulated trans-acting factor (50 kDa) (STAF50);
Stromal antigen 2 (STAG2);
stromal interaction molecule 1 (STIM1);
structure specific recognition protein 1 (SSRP1);
succinate dehydrogenase complex, subunit A, flavoprotein (Fp) (SDHA);
succinate dehydrogenase complex, subunit B, iron sulfur (Ip) (SDHB);
succinate dehydrogenase complex, subunit C, integral membrane protein, 15 kD (SDHC);
succinate dehydrogenase complex, subunit D, Integral membrane protein (SDHD);
succinate-CoA ligase, GDP-forming, beta subunit (SUCLG2);
succinyl CoA synthetase;
sudD (suppressor of bimD6, Aspergillus nidulans) homolog (SUDD);
sulfotransferase family 1A, phenol-preferring, member 1 (SULT1A1);
superoxide dismutase 1, soluble (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 1 (adult)) (SOD1);
superoxide dismutase 2, mitochondrial (SOD2);
supervillin (SVIL);
suppression of tumorigenicity 5 (ST5);
suppressor of K+ transport defect 1 (SKD1);
suppressor of Ty (S. cerevisiae) 3 homolog (SUPT3H);
suppressor of Ty (S. cerevisiae) 4 homolog 1 (SUPT4H1);
suppressor of Ty (S. cerevisiae) 5 homolog (SUPT5H);
suppressor of Ty (S. cerevisiae) 6 homolog (SUPT6H);
suppressor of variegation 3-9 (Drosophila) homolog 1 (SUV39H1);
survival of motor neuron 1, telomeric (SMN1);
SWI/SNF related, matrix associated, actin dependent regulator of chromatin, subfamily a, member 2 (SMARCA2);
SWI/SNF related, matrix associated, actin dependent regulator of chromatin, subfamily a, member 4 (SMARCA4);
SWI/SNF related, matrix associated, actin dependent regulator of chromatin, subfamily c, member 2 (SMARCC2);
SWI/SNF related, matrix associated, actin dependent regulator of chromatin, subfamily e, member 1 (SMARCE1);
synaptobrevin-like 1 (SYBL1);
synaptosomal-associated protein, 23 kD (SNAP23);
syndecan binding protein (syntenin) (SDCBP);
synovial sarcoma, translocated to X chromosome (SSXT);
syntaxin 16;
syntaxin 3A (STX3A);
syntaxin 6 (STX6);
SYNTAXIN BINDING PROTEIN 3 (UNC-18 HOMOLOG
3) (UNC-18C);
syntaxin-16C;
SYT interacting protein (SIP);
T cell activation, increased late expression (TACTILE);
T cell receptor V alpha gene segment V-alpha-7 (clone IGRa11);
T cell receptor V alpha gene segment V-alpha-w27;
T3 receptor-associating cofactor-1;
tafazzin (cardiomyopathy, dilated 3A (X-linked);
endocardial fibroelastosis 2;
Barth syndrome) (TAZ);
tankyrase, TRF1-interacting ankyrin-related ADP-ribose polymerase (TNKS);
TAR DNA-binding protein-43;
Tat interactive protein (60 kD) (TIP60);
TATA box binding protein (TBP)-associated factor, RNA polymerase II, F, 55 kD (TAF2F);
TATA box binding protein (TBP)-associated factor, RNA polymerase II, G, 32 kD (TAF2G);
TATA box binding protein (TBP)-associated factor, RNA polymerase II, I, 28 kD (TAF2I);
Tax1 (human T-cell leukemia virus type I) binding protein 1 (TAX1BP1);
TBP-associated factor 172 (TAF-172);
T-cell death-associated gene 8 (TDAG8);
T-cell leukemia/lymphoma 1A (TCL1A);
T-cell receptor (delta D2-J1-region) (clone K3B);
T-cell receptor delta gene D2-J1-region, clone K3B;
T-cell receptor germline beta chain gene V-region (V) V-beta-MT1-1;
T-cell receptor germline beta-chain gene J2.1 exon;
T-cell receptor germline delta-chain D-J region;
T-cell receptor interacting molecule (TRIM) protein;
T-cell receptor rearranged delta-chain, V-region (V-delta 3-J);
T-cell receptor, alpha (V,D,J,C) (TCRA);
T-cell receptor, beta cluster (TCRB);
T-cell receptor, delta (V,D,J,C) (TCRD);
T-cell, immune regulator 1 (TCIRG1);
TCF-1 mRNA for T cell factor 1;
TCR eta=T cell receptor (eta-exon);
TCR V Beta 13.2;
TERA;
testis enhanced gene transcript (TEGT);
tetracycline transporter-like protein (TETRAN);
tetratricopeptide repeat domain 1′
(TTC1);
tetratricopeptide repeat domain 2 (TTC2);
tetratricopeptide repeat domain 3 (TTC3);
TGFB1-induced anti-apoptotic factor 1 (TIAF1);
thioredoxin reductase 1 (TXNRD1);
threonyl-tRNA synthetase (TARS);
thrombin inhibitor;
thrombospondin 1 (THBS1);
thromboxane A synthase 1 (platelet, cytochrome P450, subfamily V) (TBXAZ1);
thymidine kinase 2, mitochondrial (TK2);
thymidylate kinase (CDC8);
thymine-DNA glycosylase (TDG);
Thymosin, beta 10 (TMSB10);
thymosin, beta 4, X chromosome (TMSB4X);
thyroid autoantigen 70 kD (Ku antigen) (G22P1);
thyroid hormone receptor coactivating protein (SMAP);
thyroid hormone receptor interactor 7 (TRIP7);
thyroid hormone receptor interactor 8r (TRIP8);
thyroid hormone receptor-associated protein, 230 kDa subunit (TRAP230);
thyroid receptor interacting protein 15 (TRIP15);
TI-227H;
TIA1 cytotoxic granule-associated RNA-binding protein (TIA1);
tissue inhibitor of metalloproteinase 1 (erythroid potentiating activity, collagenase inhibitor) (TIMP1);
tissue inhibitor of metalloproteinase 2 (TIMP2);
tissue specific transplantation antigen P35B (TSTA3);
titin (TTN);
TNF receptor-associated factor 2 (TRAF2);
TNF receptor-associated factor 3 (TRAF3);
toll-like receptor 1 (TLR1);
toll-like receptor 2 (TLR2);
toll-like receptor 4 (TLR4);
toll-like receptor 5 (TILR5);
topoisomerase (DNA) I (TOP1);
topoisomerase (DNA) II beta (180 kD) (TOP2B);
topoisomerase (DNA) III beta (TOP3B);
TR3beta;
TRAF family member-associated NF-kB activator (TANK);
transaldolase 1 (TALDO1);
transaldolase-related protein;
transcobalamin II (TCII);
transcription elongation factor B (SIII), polypeptide 1-like (TCEB1L);
transcription elongation factor B (SIII), polypeptide 3 (110 kD, elongin A) (TCEB3);
transcription factor 12 (HTF4, helix-loop-helix transcription factors
4) (TCF12);
transcription factor 17 (TCF17);
transcription factor 4 (TCR4);
transcription factor 6-like 1 (mitochondrial transcription factor 1-like) (TCF6L1);
transcription factor 7-like 2 (T-cell specific, HMG-box) (TCF7L2);
transcription factor binding to IGHM enhancer 3 (TFE3;
transcription factor IL-4 Stat;
transcription factor TFIID;
transcriptional adaptor 2 (ADA2, yeast, homolog)-like (TADA2L);
transducin (beta)-like 1 (TBL1);
transducin-like enhancer of split 3, homolog of Drosophila E(sp1) (TLE3);
Transformation/transcription domain-associated protein (TRRAP);
transformation-sensitive, transforming growth factor beta-stimulated protein TSC-22 (TSC22);
transforming growth factor, beta receptor III (betaglycan, 300 kD) (TGFBR3);
transforming growth factor, beta-induced, 68 kD (TGFBI);
transgelin 2 (TAGLN2);
trans-Golgi network protein (46, 48, 51 kD isoforms) (TGN51);
transient receptor potential channel 1 (TRPC1);
transketolase (Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome) (TKT);
translation factor sui1 homolog (GC20);
translin (TSN);
translin-associated factor X (TSNAX);
transmembrane glycoprotein (A33);
transmembrane protein (63 kD), endoplasmic reticulum/Golgi intermediate compartment (P63);
transmembrane protein 1 (TMEM2);
transmembrane trafficking protein (TMP21);
transporter 1, ABC (ATP binding cassette) (TAP1);
Treacher Collins-Franceschetti syndrome 1 (TCOF1);
triosephosphate isomerase 1 (TPI1);
tropomyosin;
tropomyosin 4 (TPM4);
TRPM-2 protein;
tryptophan rich basic protein (WRB);
tryptophanyl-tRNA synthetase (WARS);
Ts translation elongation factor, mitochondrial (TSFM);
ttopoisomerase (DNA) II beta (180 kD);
Tu translation elongation factor, mitochondrial (TUFM);
tuberous sclerosis 1 (TSC1);
tuberous sclerosis 2 (TSC2);
tubulin, alpha 1 (testis specific) (TUBA1);
tubulin, alpha, ubiquitous (K-ALPHA-1);
tubulin-specific chaperone c (TBCC);
tumor necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily, member 10 (TNFSF10);
tumor necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily, member 13 (TNFSF13);
tumor necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily, member 14 (TNFSF14);
tumor necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily, member 6 (TNFSF6);
tumor necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily, member 8 (TNFSF8);
tumor necrosis factor alpha-inducible cellular protein containing leucine zipper domains (FIP2);
Tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 7 (TNFRSF7);
tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 10b (TNFRSF10B);
tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 10c, decoy without an intracellular domain (TNFRSF10C);
tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 12 (translocating chain-association membrane protein) (TNFRSF12);
tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 14 (herpesvirus entry mediator) (TNFRSF14);
tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 1B (TNFRSF1B);
tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 6 (TNFRSF6);
tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 7 (TNFRSF7);
tumor necrosis, factor, alpha-induced protein 2 (TNFAIP2);
tumor necrosis factor, alpha-induced protein 3 (TNFAIP3);
tumor protein 53-binding protein, 1 (TP53BP1);
tumor protein p53 (Li-Fraumeni syndrome) (TP53);
Tumor protein p53-binding protein (TP53BPL);
tumor protein, translationally-controlled 1 (TPT1);
tumor rejection antigen (gp96) 1 (TRA1);
tumorous imaginal discs (Drosophila) homolog (TID1);
TXK tyrosine kinase (TXK);
type II integral membrane protein (NKG2-E);
TYRO protein tyrosine kinase binding protein (TYROBP);
tyrosine 3-monooxygenase/tryptophan 5-monooxygenase activation protein, beta polypeptide (YWHAB);
tyrosine 3-monooxygenase/tryptophan 5-monooxygenase activation protein, zeta polypeptide (YWHAZ);
Tyrosine kinase 2 (TYK2);
tyrosyl-tRNA synthetase (YARS);
U1 small nuclear RNA;
U2 (RNU2) small nuclear RNA auxiliary factor 1 (non-standard symbol) (U2AF1);
U22 snoRNA host gene (UHG);
U4/U6-associated RNA splicing factor (HPRP3P);
U49 small nuclear RNA;
U5 snRNP-specific protein (220 kD), ortholog of S. cerevisiae Prp8p (PRP8);
U5 snRNP-specific protein, 116 kD (U5-116 KD);
U5 snRNP-specific protein, 200 kDa (DEXH RNA helicase family) (U5-200-KD);
Uba80 mRNA for ubiquitin;
ubiquinol-cytochrome c reductase (6.4 kD) subunit (UQCR);
ubiquitin A-52 residue ribosomal protein fusion product 1 (UBA52);
ubiquitin activating enzyme E1-like protein (GSA7);
ubiquitin C (UBC);
ubiquitin carboxyl-terminal esterase L3 (ubiquitin thiolesterase) (UCHL3);
ubiquitin fusion degradation 1-like (UFD1L);
ubiquitin protein ligase E3A (human papilloma virus E6-associated protein, Angelman syndrome) (UBE3A);
ubiquitin specific protease 10 (USP10);
ubiquitin specific protease 11 (USP11);
ubiquitin specific protease 15 (USP15);
ubiquitin specific protease 19 (USP19);
ubiquitin specific protease 4 (proto-oncogene) (USP4);
ubiquitin specific protease 7 (herpes virus-associated) (USP7);
ubiquitin specific protease 8 (USP8);
ubiquitin-activating enzyme E1 (A1S9T and BN75 temperature sensitivity complementing) (UBE1);
ubiquitin-activating enzyme E1, like (UBE1L);
UBIQUITIN-BINDING PROTEIN P62;
phosphotyrosine independent ligand for the Lck SH2 domain p62 (P62);
ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2 variant 1 (UBE2V1);
ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2 variant 2 (UBE2V2);
ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2B (RAD6 homolog) (UBE2B);
ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2G 2 (homologous to yeast UBC7) (UBE2G2);
ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2H (homologous to yeast UBC8) (UBE2H);
ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2L 1 (UBE2L1);
ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2L 3 (UBE2L3);
ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2L 6 (UBE2L6);
ubiquitin-like 1 (sentrin) (UBL1);
UDP-N-acetyl-alpha-D-galactosamine;
polypeptide N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase 2 (GalNAc-T2) (GALNT2);
unactive progesterone receptor, 23 Kd (P23);
unconventional myosin-ID (MYO1F);
uncoupling protein homolog (UCPH);
uppressor of Ty (S. cerevisiae) 6 homolog;
upregulated by 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D-3 (VDUP1);
upstream binding factor (hUBF);
UV radiation resistance associated gene (UVRAG);
vacuolar proton-ATPase, subunit D;
V-ATPase, subunit D (ATP6DV);
v-akt murine thymoma viral oncogene homolog 1 (AKT1);
Vanin 2 (VNN2);
vasodilator-stimulated phosphoprotein (VASP);
vav 1 oncogene (VAV1);
vav 2 oncogene (VAV2);
v-crk avian sarcoma virus CT10 oncogene homolog (CRK);
v-erb-b2 avian erythroblastic leukemia viral oncogene homolog 3 (ERBB3);
Vesicle-associated membrane protein 1 (synaptobrevin
1) (VAMP1);
vesicle-associated membrane protein 3 (cellubrevin) (VAMP3);
v-fos FBJ murine osteosarcoma viral oncogene homolog (FOS);
villin 2 (ezrin) (VIL2);
villin-like protein;
vimentin (VIM);
vinculin (VCL);
vitamin A responsive;
cytoskeleton related (JWA);
v-jun avian sarcoma virus 17 oncogene homolog (JUN);
v-myb avian myeloblastosis viral oncogene homolog (MYB);
voltage-dependent anion channel 1 (VDAC1);
voltage-dependent anion channel 3 (VDAC3);
von Hippel-Lindau syndrome (VHL);
v-raf murine sarcoma 3611 viral oncogene homolog 1 (ARAF1);
v-raf-1 murine leukemia viral oncogene homolog 1 (RAF1);
v-ral simian leukemia viral oncogene homolog B (ras related;
GTP binding protein) (RALB);
V-rel avian reticuloendotheliosis viral oncogene homolog A (nuclear factor of kappa light polypeptide gene enhancer in B-cells 3 (p65)) (RELA);
v-yes-1 Yamaguchi sarcoma viral related oncogene homolog (LYN);
WD repeat domain 1 (WDR1);
WD-repeat protein (HAN11);
Williams-Beuren syndrome chromosome region 1 (WBSCR1);
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome protein interacting protein (WASPIP);
X (inactive)-specific-transcript (XIST);
xeroderma pigmentosum, complementation group C (XPC);
XIAP associated factor-1;
XIB;
X-linked anhidroitic ectodermal dysplasia;
X-ray repair complementing defective repair in Chinese hamster cells 5 (double-strand-break rejoining;
Ku autoantigen, 80 kD) (XRCC5);
XRP2 protein;
yeloid differentiation primary response gene (88) (MYD88);
zeta-chain (TCR) associated protein kinase (70 kD) (ZAP70);
zinc finger protein (Hs.47371);
zinc finger protein (Hs.78765);
zinc finger protein 10 (KOX
1) (ZNF10);
zinc finger protein 136 (clone pHZ-20) (ZNF136);
zinc finger protein 140 (clone pHZ-39) (ZNF140);
zinc finger protein 143 (clone pHZ-1) (ZNF143);
zinc finger protein 148 (pHZ-52) (ZNF148);
zinc finger protein 173 (ZNF173);
zinc finger protein 198 (ZNF198);
zinc finger protein 200 (ZNF200);
zinc finger protein 207 (ZNF207);
zinc finger protein 216 (ZNF216);
zinc finger protein 217 (ZNF217);
zinc finger protein 230 (ZNF230);
Zinc finger protein 239 (ANF239);
zinc finger protein 261 (ZNF261);
zinc finger protein 262 (ANF262);
zinc finger protein 263 (ZNF263);
zinc finger protein 264 (ZNF264);
zinc finger protein 42 (myeloid-specific retinoic cid-responsive) (ZNF42);
zinc finger protein 45 (a Kruppel-associated box (KRAB) domain polypeptide) (ZNF45);
zinc finger protein 76 (expressed in testis) (ZNF76);
zinc finger protein 84 (HPF2) (ZNF84);
zinc finger protein 85 (ZNF85));
zinc finger protein 9 (ZNF9);
zinc finger protein C2H2-25 (ZNF25);
zinc finger protein clone L3-4;
zinc finger protein homologous to Zfp-36 in mouse (ZFP36);
zinc finger protein HZF4;
zinc finger'"'"'protein RIZ;
zinc finger protein, subfamily 1A, 1 (Ikaros) (LYF1);
zinc finger transcriptional regulator (GOS24);
zinc-finger helicase (hZFH);
Zn-15 related zinc finger protein (rlf);
ZNF80-linked ERV9 long terminal repeat;
ZW10 (Drosophila) homolog, centromere/kinetochore protein (ZW10); and
zyxin (ZYX);thereby profiling gene expression in a human subject. - View Dependent Claims (2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10)
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Specification